aiims-2019
AIIMS 2019
MEDICAL 2019 Previous Year
3 hDuration
180Total Marks
180Questions
3Sections
Instructions
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Paper Structure
Chemistry
Chemistry
Q1.
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$$\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}_2$$ is obtained by which of the following?
Q2.
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Yellow colour of chlorine water fades because of
Q3.
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**Assertion :** Out of $$\mathrm{CrO}_3$$ and $$\mathrm{Al}_2 \mathrm{O}_3, \mathrm{CrO}_3$$ having lower melting point than $$\mathrm{Al}_2 \mathrm{O}_3$$.
**Reason :** Oxidation state of $$\mathrm{Cr}$$ in $$\mathrm{CrO}_3$$ is high.
Q4.
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**Assertion :** $$\mathrm{Yb}^{2+}$$ is more stable in compare to $$\mathrm{Gd}^{+2}$$.
**Reason :** The electronic configuration of GD is $$[\mathrm{Xe}] 4 f^7 5 d^2 6 s^2$$.
Q5.
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**Assertion :** $$d^5$$ configuration is more stable than $$d^4$$.
**Reason :** $$d^5$$ has more exchange energy as compared to $$d^4$$ because 10 and 6 exchanges are possible in $$d^5$$ and $$d^4$$ respectively.
Q6.
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**Assertion :** $$\mathrm{S}_2 \mathrm{O}_7^{2-}$$ and $$\mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7^{2-}$$ both exist.
**Reason :** Both have same valence electrons.
Q7.
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Which give coloured carbonate precipitate?
Q8.
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Which element can have oxidation state
from 4 to 6?
Q9.
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Match the following columns.
Polymer
Monomer
(i)
Buna-S
(P)
Styrene
(ii)
Ethylene glycol
(Q)
Terylene
(iii)
Elastomer
(R)
Chloroprene
Correct set of answer :
Q10.
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**Assertion :** Nylon-6 is condensation polymer.
**Reason :** It is polymer of caprolactum.
Q11.
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**Assertion :** $$\mathrm{BO}_3^{-3}$$ and $$\mathrm{SO}_3^{-2}$$ are not isostructural.
**Reason :** In $$\mathrm{SO}_3^{2-}$$ sulphur has one lone pair of electron.
Q12.
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Which of the following, number of lone pair at central atom zero $$\mathrm{XeO}_3, \mathrm{XeO}_2 \mathrm{~F}_2, \mathrm{XeO}_4, \mathrm{XeO}_3 \mathrm{~F}_2, \mathrm{XeF}_6$$ ?
Q13.
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Which is least soluble?
Q14.
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$$\mathrm{pH}$$ of a salt solution of weak acid $$(\mathrm{p} K_a=4)$$ and weak base $$(\mathrm{p} K_b=5)$$ at $$25^{\circ}$$ is
Q15.
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What is the activation energy $$(\mathrm{kJ} / \mathrm{mol})$$ for a reaction if its rate constant doubles when the temperature is raised from $$300 \mathrm{~K}$$ to $$400 \mathrm{~K}$$ of these $$(R=8.314 \mathrm{~Jmol}^{-1} \mathrm{~K}^{-1})$$
Q16.
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Find out time period of Ist order reaction. When reaction complete $$2 / 3 \mathrm{rd}$$. If the value of rate constant is $$4.3 \times 10^{-4}$$
Q17.
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Which of the following can react with $$\mathrm{K}_2 \mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7$$ ?
Q18.
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**Assertion :** A spherical water drops become
flaton flatter surface.
**Reason :** It become flat due to gravity.
Q19.
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Correct order for reaction with alcoholic KOH
Q20.
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Correct order of electrophillic substitution
reaction is
Q21.
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The vapour pressure of pure $$\mathrm{CHCl}_3$$ and $$\mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{Cl}_2$$ are 200 and $$41.5 \mathrm{~atm}$$ respectively. The weight of $$\mathrm{CHCl}_3$$ and $$\mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{Cl}_2$$ are respectively $$11.9 \mathrm{~g}$$ and $$17 \mathrm{~g}$$. The vapour pressure of solution will be
Q22.
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If boiling point of water is $$100^{\circ} \mathrm{C}$$. How much gram of $$\mathrm{NaCl}$$ is added in $$500 \mathrm{~g}$$ of water to increase its boiling point of water by approx $$1^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\left(K_b\right)_{\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}}=0.52 \mathrm{~K} \times \mathrm{kg} /$$ mole.
Q23.
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Find empirical formula of the compound if $$M=68 \%$$ (atomic mass $$=34$$ ) and remaining $$32 \%$$ oxygen.
Q24.
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Correct order of bond dissociation energy
Q25.
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Which pair of elements has maximum
electronegativity difference?
Q26.
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Which has least covalent radius?
Q27.
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Which have melting point below $$500^{\circ} \mathrm{C}$$ ?
Q28.
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The correct relation is
Q29.
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**Assertion :** $$U$$ is state function.
**Reason :** $$T$$ is an intensive property.
Q30.
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At $$25^{\circ} \mathrm{C}, 1$$ mole of butane is heated then $$\mathrm{CO}_2$$ and $$\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}$$ liquid is formed work done is
Q31.
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**Assertion :** The graph between $$p V$$ v/s $$\frac{1}{V}$$ is a straight line.
**Reason :** For adiabatic process, $$p \propto \frac{1}{V}$$
Q32.
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Which of the following statement is correct
for oleum?
Q33.
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Which of the following inert gas participate
in chemical reaction?
Q34.
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$$\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{O}_4\right)_3\right]^{3-}$$ is a
Q35.
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Which of the following complex is optically
inactive?
Q36.
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Correct increasing order for the wavelength of absorption in the visible region for the complexes of $$\mathrm{Co}^{3+}$$ is
Q37.
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Correct order of basic strength is
Correct order of basic strength is
Q38.
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Which is most stable conformer of ethan-1,
2-diol?
Q39.
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Compare stability of free radicals
(I) $$\mathrm{CH}_3-\mathop C\limits^ \bullet H-\mathrm{CH}_3$$
(II) 
(III) $$\mathop C\limits^ \bullet {H_2}-\mathrm{CH}\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2$$
(IV) $$\mathop C\limits^ \bullet {H_2}-\mathrm{CH}_3$$
(III) $$\mathop C\limits^ \bullet {H_2}-\mathrm{CH}\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2$$
(IV) $$\mathop C\limits^ \bullet {H_2}-\mathrm{CH}_3$$
Q40.
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(i) $$\mathrm{F}_3 \mathrm{C}-\mathrm{COOH}$$, (ii) $$\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COOH}$$,
(iii) $$\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{COOH}$$, (iv) $$\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}$$
Correct order of $$\mathrm{p} K_a$$ value is
Q41.
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Write IUPAC name of following compound.
Write IUPAC name of following compound.
Q42.
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Order of acidic nature
Q43.
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**Assertion :** For liquid dishwashing
non-ionic type of detergent are used.
**Reason :** Remove grease and oil by micelle
formation.
Q44.
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**Assertion :** Anhydrides are more reactive than ester for nucleophilic substitution.
**Reason :** $$RCOO -$$ is better leaving group than $$\mathrm{R}-\mathrm{O}^{-}$$.
Q45.
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Find out the products of reaction
Find out the products of reaction
Q46.
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Out of $$\mathrm{BeF}_2, \mathrm{MgF}_2, \mathrm{CaF}_2, \mathrm{SrF}_2$$ which has maximum solubility?
Q47.
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Which of the following has maximum iron
content?
Q48.
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**Assertion :** Phenol reacts with $$\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{I}$$ in presence of $$\mathrm{NaOH}$$ to form methoxybenzene.
**Reason :** Phenoxide is better nucleophile than phenol.
Q49.
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**Assertion :** Tert-butyl methyl ether react with $$\mathrm{HBr}$$ to form tert butyl, $$\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{C}-\mathrm{Br}$$ and $$\mathrm{CH}_3-\mathrm{OH}$$, methanal.
**Reason :** It follows $$\mathrm{S}_{\mathrm{N}} 1$$ mechanism.
Q50.
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**Assertion :** Propene reacts with $$\mathrm{HI}$$ in presence of peroxide give 1-iodopropane.
**Reason :** $$1^{\circ}$$ free radical is less stable than $$2^{\circ}$$ free radical.
Q51.
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**Assertion :** Two sugar units joined by 1, 2-glycosidic bond in sucrose.
**Reason :** It contains $$\mathrm{C}_1$$-glucose and $$\mathrm{C}_2$$-fructose glycosidic bond.
Q52.
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**Assertion :** Tryptophan is an example of
non-essential amino acids.
**Reason :** The amino acids that are not
synthesised in human body are
non-essential amino acids.
Q53.
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**Assertion :** Glucose does not gives 2, 4- DNP
test.
**Reason :** Glucose exists in cyclic hemiacetal
form.
Q54.
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The tetrahedral voids are present in 0.5 mole of hcp crystal structure
Q55.
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**Assertion :** ZnO becomes yellow when it is
heated.
**Reason :** The anionic sites occupied by
unpaired electrons (due to F-centres).
Q56.
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Which of the following is correct order of
packing efficiency?
Q57.
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Cell notation, $$\begin{gathered}
M\left|M^{2+} \| M^{2+}\right| M. \\
0.01 \quad 0.0001
\end{gathered}$$ If value of $$E^{\circ}{ }_{\text {cell }} \text { is } 4 \text { volt ( Given } \frac{R T}{F} \text { in } 10=0.06 \text { ) }$$
Q58.
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**Assertion :** Tert-butyl amine can be formed by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
**Reason :** It follow $$\mathrm{S}_{\mathrm{N}} 1$$ mechanism.
Q59.
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**Assertion :** The chemical properties of
different isotope are same.
**Reason :** Isotopes having same number of
neutron.
Q60.
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A bulb is emitted electromagnetic radiation of $$660 \mathrm{~nm}$$ wavelength. The total energy of radiation is $$3 \times 10^{-18} \mathrm{~J}$$. The number of emitted photon will be
$$\left(h=6.6 \times 10^{-34}\right) \mathrm{J} \times \mathrm{s}, c=3 \times 10^8 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$$
Physics
Physics
Q1.
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**Assertion :** Distance between position of
bright and dark fringe remain same in YDSE.
**Reason :** Fringe width, $$\beta=\frac{\lambda D}{d}$$
Q2.
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**Assertion :** Incoming light reflected by earth
is partially polarised.
**Reason :** Atmospheric particle polarise the
light.
Q3.
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Distance of 5th dark fringe from centre is $$4 \mathrm{~mm}$$. If $$D=2 \mathrm{~m}, \lambda=600 \mathrm{~nm}$$, then distance between slits is
Q4.
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A light of wavelength $$500 \mathrm{~nm}$$ is incident on a Young's double slit. The distance between slit and screen is $$D=1.8 \mathrm{~m}$$ and distance between slits is $$d=0.4 \mathrm{~mm}$$. If screen moves with a speed of $$4 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$$, then with what speed first maxima will move?
Q5.
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A sphere pure rolls on a rough inclined
plane with initial velocity 2.8 m/s. Find the
maximum distance on the inclined plane.
Q6.
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**Assertion :** A metallic surface is moved in
and out in magnetic field then emf is
induced in it.
**Reason :** Eddy current will be produced in a
metallic surface moving in and out of
magnetic field.
Q7.
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An electron is moving in a circle of radius
2m with speed of 4 m/s. Find the
acceleration of the electron.
Q8.
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Calculate the mean percentage error in five
observations,
80.0, 80.5, 81.0, 81.5, 82
Q9.
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**Assertion :** Vibrational degree of freedom of
a di-atomic gas molecule appears at every
high temperature.
**Reason :** Di-atomic gas has two vibrational
degree of freedom in one direction.
Q10.
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If $$7 \mathrm{~gm} \mathrm{~N}_2$$ is mixed with $$20 \mathrm{~gm} \mathrm{~Ar}$$, there $$\frac{C_p}{C_V}$$ of mixture will be
Q11.
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Calculate radiation power for sphere whose temperature is 227$$^\circ$$C, radius 2 m and emissivity 0.8.
Q12.
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In an isobaric process, the work done by a
di-atomic gas is 10 J, the heat given to the
gas will be
Q13.
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**Assertion :** In adiabatic process work is
independent of the path.
**Reason : **In adiabatic process work done is
equal to negative of change in internal
energy.
Q14.
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The temperature of food material in
refrigerator is 4$$^\circ$$C and temperature of
environment is 15$$^\circ$$C. If carnot cycle is used
in its working gas, then find its carnot
efficiency.
Q15.
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An ideal gas initially at pressure 1 bar is being compressed from $$30 \mathrm{~m}^3$$ to $$10 \mathrm{~m}^3$$ volume and its temperature decreases from $$320 \mathrm{~K}$$ to $$280 \mathrm{~K}$$, then find final pressure of the gas.
Q16.
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**Assertion :** $$\mathrm{NH}_3$$ is liquidities more easily than $$\mathrm{CO}_2$$.
**Reason :** Critical temperature of $$\mathrm{NH}_3$$ is more than $$\mathrm{CO}_2$$.
Q17.
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In an isothermal process 2 water drops of radius $$1 \mathrm{~mm}$$ are combined to form a bigger drop. Find the energy change in this process if $$T=0.1 \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m}$$.
Q18.
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**Assertion :** Sometimes insects can walk on
water.
**Reason :** The gravitational force on insect is
balanced by force due surface tension.
Q19.
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**Assertion :** Water drops take spherical shape
when falling freely.
**Reason :** Water has minimum surface
tension among all liquids.
Q20.
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If a small orifice is made at a height of
0.25 m from the ground, the horizontal
range of water stream will be
Q21.
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Determine the pressure difference in tube of
non-uniform cross sectional area as shown
in figure.
$$\Delta P=?, d_1=5 \mathrm{~cm}, v_1=4 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}, d_2=2 \mathrm{~cm}, v_2=?$$
Q22.
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Find gravitational field at a distance of $$2000 \mathrm{~km}$$ from the centre of earth. (Given
$$R_{\text {earth }}=6400 \mathrm{~km}, r=2000 \mathrm{~km} \text {, } M_{\text {earth }}=6 \times 10^{24} \mathrm{~kg} \text { ) }$$
Q23.
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A capacitor of capacitance $$15 \mu \mathrm{F}$$ having dielectric slab of $$\varepsilon_r=2.5$$, dielectric strength $$30 \mathrm{~MV} / \mathrm{m}$$ and potential difference $$=30 \mathrm{~V}$$. Calculate the area of the plate.
Q24.
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In the given circuit, find charge on capacitor after 1s of opening the switch at $$t=\infty$$.
In the given circuit, find charge on capacitor after 1s of opening the switch at $$t=\infty$$.
Q25.
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Calculate the focal length of given lens if the
magnification is $$-$$0 5.
Q26.
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If focal length of objective and eye lenses are $$10 \mathrm{~cm}$$ and $$10 \mathrm{~mm}$$ respectively and tube length is $$11 \mathrm{~cm}$$ then angular magnification of telescope is
Q27.
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If voltage across a zener diode is 6V, then
find out the value of maximum resistance in
this condition.
Q28.
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The given transistor operates in saturation region then what should be the value of $$V_{B B}$$ ?
$$\begin{aligned}
& \left(R_{\text {out }}=200 \Omega, R_{\text {in }}=100 \mathrm{~k} \Omega, V_{C C}=3 \mathrm{~V},\right. \\\\
& \left.V_{B E}=0.7 \mathrm{~V}, V_{C E}=0, \beta=200\right)
\end{aligned}$$
Q29.
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**Assertion :** Photodiode and solar cell work
on same mechanism.
**Reason :** Area is large for solar cell.
Q30.
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**Assertion :** A charge particle is released
from rest in magnetic field then it will move
in a circular path.
**Reason :** Work done by magnetic field is non
zero.
Q31.
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A proton is projected with velocity $$\mathbf{v}=2 \hat{\mathbf{i}}$$ in a region where magnetic field $$\mathbf{B}=(\hat{\mathbf{i}}+3 \hat{\mathbf{j}}+4 \hat{\mathbf{k}}) \mu \mathrm{T}$$ and electric field $$\mathbf{E}=10 \hat{\mathbf{i}} \mu \mathrm{V} / \mathrm{m}$$. Then find out the net acceleration of proton
Q32.
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Two circular loops having same radius $$(R=10 \mathrm{~cm})$$ and same current $$\frac{7}{2} \mathrm{~A}$$ are placed along same axis as shown. If distance between their centres is $$10 \mathrm{~cm}$$, find net magnetic field at point $$P$$.
Q33.
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If two protons are moving with speed $$v=4.5 \times 10^5 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$$ parallel to each other then find the ratio of electrostatic and magnetic force between them
Q34.
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In figure, two parallel infinitely long current carrying wires are shown. If resultant magnetic field at point $$A$$ is zero. Then determine the value of current $$I$$.
Q35.
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**Assertion :** Electron moving perpendicular
to B will perform circular motion.
**Reason :** Force by magnetic field is
perpendicular to velocity.
Q36.
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**Assertion :** In ionospheric reflection, phase
change does not occur with the radio wave.
**Reason :** The ionosphere reflection is similar
to the total internal reflection in miraj.
Q37.
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**Assertion :** Amplitude modulation shows
more interference than frequency
modulation with noise.
**Reason :** Interference is function of amplitude
of modulation wave with carrier-wave.
Q38.
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If modulation index, $$\mu=\frac{1}{2}$$ and $$V_m=2$$, then $$V_C$$ is
Q39.
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If temperature of Sun $$=6000 \mathrm{~K}$$, radius of Sun is $$7.2 \times 10^5 \mathrm{~km}$$, radius of Earth $$=6000 \mathrm{~km}$$ and distance between Earth and Sun $$=15 \times 10^7 \mathrm{~km}$$. Find intensity of light on Earth.
Q40.
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**Assertion :** In both radioactivity and
photoelectric effect electrons may be ejected.
**Reason :** In photoelectric effect and
radioactivity emission occurs only of
unstable elements.
Q41.
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15 eV is given to electron in 4th orbit then
find its final energy when it comes out of
H-atom.
Q42.
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**Assertion :** For an element generally $$N \geq Z$$ ( $$N=$$ number of neutrons, $$Z=$$ atomic number)
**Reason :** Neutrons always experience attractive nuclear force.
Q43.
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If half life of an element is $$69.3 \mathrm{~h}$$, then how much of its percent will decay in 10th to 11th $$\mathrm{h}$$. Initial activity $$=50 ~\mu \mathrm{~Ci}$$
Q44.
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**Assertion :** Heavy water is used to slow
neutron in nuclear reactor.
**Reason :** It does not react with slow neutron
and mass of deuterium is comparable to the
neutron.
Q45.
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A body of mass $$5 \times 10^3 \mathrm{~kg}$$ moving with speed $$2 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$$ collides with a body of mass $$15 \times 10^3 \mathrm{~kg}$$ inelastically and sticks to it. Then loss in $$\mathrm{KE}$$ of the system will be
Q46.
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**Assertion :** Even though net external force
on a body is zero, momentum need not to
conserved.
**Reason :** The internal interaction between
particles of a body cancels out momentum of
each other.
Q47.
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**Assertion :** There is no loss in energy in elastic collision.
**Reason :** Linear momentum is conserved in elastic collision.
Q48.
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A string wave equation is given $$y=0.002 \sin (300 t-15 x)$$ and mass density is $$(\mu=0.1 \mathrm{~kg} / \mathrm{m})$$. Then find the tension force in the string.
Q49.
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Two sources of sound S$$_1$$ and S$$_2$$ are moving
towards and away from a stationary observer
with the same speed respectively. Observer
detects 3 beats per second. Find speed of
sources (approximately).
Given, $$f_1=f_2=500$$ Hz, speed of sound in air = 330 m/s
Q50.
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If the speed of sound in air is 330 m/s then,
find the number of tones present in an open
organ pipe of length 1 m whose frequency is $$\le$$ 1000 Hz.
Q51.
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A gun applied a force $F$ on a bullet which is given by $$F=\left(100-0.5 \times 10^5 t\right) \mathrm{N}$$. The bullet emerges out with speed $$400 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$$. Then find out the impulse exerted till force on the bullet becomes zero.
Q52.
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**Assertion :** A glass ball is dropped on
concrete floor can easily get broken
compared if it is dropped on wooden floor.
**Reason :** On concrete floor glass ball will take
less time to come to rest.
Q53.
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$$\alpha$$-particle is revolving in a circular path with radius $$r$$ with speed $$v$$, then find the value of magnetic dipole moment.
Q54.
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**Assertion :** Paramagnetic substances get
poorly attracted in magnetic field.
**Reason :** Because magnetic dipoles are
aligned along external magnetic field weakly.
Q55.
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Initially spring in its natural
length now a block at mass 0.25 kg
is released then find out maximum
force by system on the floor.
Q56.
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A current of $$10 \mathrm{~A}$$ is passing through a metallic wire of cross-sectional area $$4 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{~m}^2$$. If the density of the aluminium conductor is $$2.7 \mathrm{~gm} / \mathrm{cc}$$ considering aluminium gives 1 electron per atom for conduction, then find the drift velocity of the electrons if molecular weight of aluminium is $$27 \mathrm{~gm}$$.
Q57.
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For a wire $$\frac{R}{\ell}=\frac{1}{2}$$ and length of wire is $$\ell=5 \mathrm{~cm}$$. If potential difference of $$\mathrm{l} \mathrm{V}$$ is applied across it, then current through wire will be ($$R=$$ Resistance)
Q58.
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If maximum energy is stored in a capacitor
at t = 0, then find the time after which
current in the circuit will be maximum.
Q59.
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In a $$L C R$$ series circuit source voltage is $$120 \mathrm{~V}$$ and voltage in inductor $$50 \mathrm{~V}$$ and resistance is $$40 \mathrm{~V}$$, then determine voltage in the capacitor
Q60.
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A transformer with turns ratio $$\frac{N_1}{N_2}=\frac{50}{1}$$ is connected to a $$120 \mathrm{~V}$$ AC supply. If primary and secondary circuit resistances are $$1.5 \mathrm{~k} \Omega$$ and $$1 \Omega$$ respectively, then find out power of output.
Biology
Biology
Q1.
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Mark the incorrect statement for inbreeding.
Q2.
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Blood group of the father is ‘A’ and blood
group of mother is ‘B’. Then predict the
blood group of the progeny
Q3.
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+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** Down’s syndrome, Klinefelter’s
syndrome and Turner’s syndrome are
chromosomal disorders.
**Reason :** In Klinefelter’s syndrome females
are sterile.
Q4.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Match the following columns and choose the
correct option from the codes given below.
Column I
Column II
A.
Pleiotropic gene
(i)
Both alleles express equally
B.
Co-dominance
(ii)
Change in nucleotides
C.
Epistasis
(iii)
One gene shows multiple phenotypic expression
D.
Mutation
(iv)
Non-allelic gene inheritance
Q5.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Characteristic of female cockroach
Q6.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Which cell is found in mucus secreting organs?
Q7.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Identify the given diagram of tissue
performing secretion and absorption.
Q8.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
What is the site of $$C_3$$ cycle in $$C_3$$ and $$C_4$$ plants?
Q9.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** In $$\mathrm{C}_3$$ cycle, the first stable compound is $$3 \mathrm{C}$$ compound.
**Reason :** In $$\mathrm{C}_4$$ plants, Calvin cycle is absent.
Q10.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Animal of which phylum have hooks and
suckers and are endoparasite on other animals?
Q11.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** Heterospory and retention of
female gametophyte are responsible for
origin of seed habit in Selaginella.
**Reason :** Psilotum is a living fossil.
Q12.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Which of the following are homosporous?
Q13.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** Selaginella and Salvinia are
homosporous.
**Reason :** In pteridophyte, Lycopodium is
precursor of seed habit.
Q14.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** Gastrin is a hormone that is
released from the gastrointestinal tract and
helps in digestion.
**Reason :** It promotes secretion of HCl and
trypsinogen.
Q15.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** Cholecystokinin is released by
duodenum.
**Reason :** It activates pepsinogen and bile
juice.
Q16.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Identify A, B and C
Identify A, B and C
Q17.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Select the wrong statement from the following.
Q18.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
The genetic codes of arginine are
Q19.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** In eukaryotes, transcription
occurs in nucleus.
**Reason :** In bacteria, transcription and
translation occurs in cytoplasm.
Q20.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Gene library or DNA library has the collection of
Q21.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** Deficiency of an element may
lead to scurvy.
**Reason :** Daily requirement of ascorbic acid is
5 mg/day.
Q22.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** Cannabinoids are drugs of abuse.
**Reason :** They affect cardiovascular system
and central nervous system activity.
Q23.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Immunity tolerance developed by
Q24.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** Type-I diabetes is caused by
destruction of $$\beta$$-cells of islets of Langerhans.
**Reason :** Insulin can be taken as pills.
Q25.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Select the correct option w.r.t. age pyramids.
Select the correct option w.r.t. age pyramids.
Q26.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** In commensalism, one organism
is benefitted and other is unaffected.
**Reason :** Cattle egret bird and cattle is an
example of commensalism.
Q27.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** SA node malfunctioning leads to
disturbance of heart rate.
**Reason :** SA node is the pacemaker of heart
producing electric impulse for heart
contraction.
Q28.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
What is the function of Bowman's capsule and glomerulus?
Q29.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** Pituitary gland releases a
hormone which is helpful in childbirth.
**Reason :** Pituitary gland releases vasopressin
and anti-diuretic hormone which helps in
childbirth.
Q30.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Choose the correct option.
Q31.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Oxytocin and ADH are produced by hypothalamus and released from
Q32.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** Biofortification is used to
increase nutrient value of crops.
**Reason :** Meristem culture is used to obtain
virus resistant plants.
Q33.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
King of spices is
Q34.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** Biofortified crop is a source of
higher proteins, minerals and healthier fats.
**Reason :** Azolla is biofertiliser.
Q35.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** Gibberellin is useful in early seed
production in conifers.
**Reason :** Ethephon is responsible for early
ripening in tomato and apple.
Q36.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
If mitochondria is absent in mature RBC,
what will be the source of energy?
Q37.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
ATP formation occurs through which of the following?
Q38.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** Respiratory pathway is
considered as an amphibolic pathway.
**Reason :** It involves both anabolism and
catabolism.
Q39.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Cervical vertebrae differ from other vertebrae in having
Q40.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** Calcium required for skeletal
muscle contraction.
**Reason :** Calcium influx releases
acetylcholine at neuromuscular junction.
Q41.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Match the following columns and choose the
correct option from the codes given below.
Column I
Column II
A.
Chrysophyte
(i)
Gonyaulax
B.
Dinoflagellate
(ii)
Euglena
C.
Euglenoids
(iii)
Diatom
D.
Slime moulds
(iv)
Plasmodium
Q42.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Which statement is correct?
Q43.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** Malpighian tubules are excretory
organs in most of the insects.
**Reason :** These help in excretion of urea and
creatinine.
Q44.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
The process of removal of anther from the
flower bud before it dehisces is called as
Q45.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
**Assertion :** Parthenocarpy involves the
formation of seedless fruit.
**Reason :** Apomixis occurs without
fertilisation.
Q46.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Which of the following is correct?
Q47.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Which of the following represent zygomorphic symmetry?
Q48.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Which of the following is incorrect?
Q49.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Match the following columns and choose the
correct option from the codes given below.
Column I
Column II
A.
Tap root
(i)
Sweet potato
B.
Adventitious root
(ii)
Turnip
C.
Stem
(iii)
Wheat
D.
Fibrous root
(iv)
Potato
Q50.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Which of the following linkage is found in sucrose?
Q51.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Match the following columns and choose the
correct option from the codes given below.
Column I
(Substrate)
Column II
(Enzyme)
(A)
Ribonucleotide
(i)
Chitinase
(B)
Chitin
(ii)
Cellulose
(C)
Cellulose
(iii)
Ribonuclease
Q52.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Glucose on reacting with Benedict's solution may give the following precipitates except
Q53.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Which of the following are all nucleotides?
Q54.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Protein on reaction with which yields Ruhemann's purple?
Q55.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Virus free plants can be formed by
Q56.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Hairy root disease of dicot plants is caused by
Q57.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
What are the requirements in tissue culture?
Q58.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Chimeric DNA is
Q59.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
Match the following columns and choose the
correct option from the codes given below.
Column I
Column II
A.
KC mehta
(i)
Fluid mosaic model
B.
P Maheshwari
(ii)
First recombinant plasmid
C.
Cohen and Boyer
(iii)
Haploid culture
D.
Singer and Nicolson
(iv)
Rust disease
Q60.
mcq single
+1 / 0.33
In Ti-plasmid, which of the following is removed?