NDA General Ability 10 April 2022
DEFENCE 2022 Previous Year
3 hDuration
600Total Marks
150Questions
3Sections
Instructions
General instructions for this test:
- Duration: 3 h. The timer starts as soon as you begin and cannot be paused.
- Total questions: 150 across 3 section(s); maximum marks: 600.
- You are allowed 1 attempt(s) at this test.
- Use the question palette on the right to navigate. Answered questions are highlighted in green; questions marked for review are highlighted in yellow.
- Each question's marking scheme (correct / wrong) is shown on the question card. Unanswered questions receive zero marks.
- Switching tabs, exiting full-screen, or attempting to copy text is monitored. Repeated tab-switching may auto-submit the test.
- Your answers autosave as you navigate. Click Submit Test when you are done. The test will be auto-submitted when the timer expires.
No exam-specific instructions were provided for this paper.
Paper Structure
English
English
Q1.
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Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alterative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).
At sixes and sevens
Q2.
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Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c), and (d).
Once in a blue moon
Q3.
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Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alterative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).
Under the weather
Q4.
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Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c), and (d).
Like chalk and cheese
Q5.
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Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c), and (d).
Through thick and thin
Q6.
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Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alterative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).
Talking twenty to the dozen
Q7.
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Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alterative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).
A stitch in time
Q8.
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Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alterative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).
Counting your chickens
Q9.
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Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alterative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).
The icing on the cake
Q10.
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Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c), and (d).
To sit on the fence
Q11.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
He has a __penchant__ for spicy food.
Q12.
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Direction: Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.
This piece of art is __authentic__.
Q13.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c), and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
His __dedication__ is known to all.
Q14.
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Direction: Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
His __integrity__ is noticed.
Q15.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c), and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
She is a __benevolent__ individual.
Q16.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c), and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
His __confidence__ is high.
Q17.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c), and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
His __sartorial__ manner is judged.
Q18.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c), and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The __deluge__ affected the population.
Q19.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c), and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
He is essentially a __crude__ person.
Q20.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c), and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
His __perspicacity__ was remarkable.
Q21.
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Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
was the victory secured by the women's hockey team (P) / in the arena of sport, perhaps (Q) / against Australia in the Tokyo Olympics (R) / the greatest moment in Indian Olympic history (S)
The correct sequence should be:
Q22.
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Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
brought by bad times (P) / against the despondency (Q) / our greatest defence (R) / faith and belief are (S)
The correct sequence should be:
Q23.
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Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
in terms of GDP and GNP, (P) / for gauging the success of a nation (Q) / which are the two major determinants (R) / economic progress is determined (S)
The correct sequence should be:
Q24.
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Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
but perhaps the best way is to agree (P) / there are many ways of dealing (Q) / with them without excessive argumentation (R) / with intransigent customers (S)
The correct sequence should be:
Q25.
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Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
are often rooted (P) / the causes (Q) / of extreme poverty (R) / in the inequalities of social systems (S)
The correct sequence should be:
Q26.
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Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
a person by the way (P) / he behaves and (Q) / you must judge (R) / not by the way he looks (S)
The correct sequence should be:
Q27.
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Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
in the years following (P) / India achieved remarkable economic development (Q) / liberalization in the year 1991 (R) / the landmark reforms inaugurated via (S)
The correct sequence should be:
Q28.
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Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
of its rain-soaked verdure (P) / and on the other there are (Q) / on the one hand there is the immense beauty (R) / the artifacts of its visible modernity (S)
The correct sequence should be:
Q29.
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Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
with the aplomb of a stage artist, (P) / that they are not men of straw (Q) / they can twist and shake their wobbly heads (R) / mesmerizing the gullible into believing (S)
The correct sequence should be:
Q30.
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Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
to the greatest number of people (P) / that causes the least discomfort (Q) / whenever in doubt (R) / always opt for the option (S)
The correct sequence should be:
Q31.
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Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
He is always __jovial.__
Q32.
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Directions : Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
Amit is __optimistic__ about the prospects of his investments.
Q33.
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Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Sachin is very __cooperative__ by nature.
Q34.
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Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
After a good meal, it is important to pay a __compliment__ to the chef.
Q35.
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Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
Mohan remains __morose__ these days.
Q36.
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Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
Raj is a __competent __carpenter.
Q37.
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Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
He was a __reluctant__ learner.
Q38.
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Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
He is __diligent __in submitting assignments.
Q39.
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Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
He appears to be __reticent__.
Q40.
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Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
His work is __laudable__.
Q41.
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Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
To be able to manage one's (a) / anger is a reflection of an individual's (b) / psychological maturity. (c) / No error (d)
Q42.
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Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
A honest mistake (a) / is no more than that; (b) / just an honest mistake. (c) / No error (d)
Q43.
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Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
The greatest glory in life (a) / is to be able to realize ones dreams and ambitions (b) / without trampling on those of others. (c) / No error (d)
Q44.
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Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
India's strengths are (a) / its diversity of culture and (b) / the spirit of tolerance in it's people.(c) / No error (d)
Q45.
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Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
__The Olympic Games reflects__ (a) / __the highest spirit of__ (b) / __human endeavour and achievement__. (c) / No error (d)
Q46.
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Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
Failure is the stepping stone to success; (a) / however, successive failures are not (b) / successive stepping stones to success. (c) / No error (d)
Q47.
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Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
The principal of the school (a) / stressed the need for discipline (b) / amongst the students. (c) / No error (d)
Q48.
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Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
Once considered ninth planet of the solar system, (a) / Pluto is today listed as the (b) / largest dwarf planet of the solar system. (c) / No error (d)
Q49.
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Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
__Every person who believes in principles__ (a) / __must stand up to fight__ (b) / __for their convictions__. (c) / No error (d)
Q50.
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Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
__A company of five thousand soldiers__, (a) / __having marched tirelessly for over five days__, (b) / __have just moved into their cantonment__. (c) / No error (d)
General Studies
General Studies
Q1.
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Who among the following had the shortest span in office as the Prime Minister of India?
Q2.
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On 14^(th) January, 2022, which one of the following ministries has organized a global Surya Namaskar Demonstration programme?
Q3.
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Who among the following retired from test cricket by bagging a wicket on the last ball of his career?
Q4.
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In a first, India is to export BrahMos missile to
Q5.
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Nisarga, Gati, Nivar, Tauktae and Yaas are names of
Q6.
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Which one of the following cities was the first to attain the status of a 'megacity'?
Q7.
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The forests of Uttarakhand, Kullu Valley in Himachal Pradesh and Dzukou Valley in Nagaland and Manipur were in the news on account of which one of the following reasons?
Q8.
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The Government of India has decided to observe ‘Veer Baal Diwas’ on
Q9.
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Who among the following is appointed as the tenth Chairman of the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) recently?
Q10.
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Legendary Kathak dancer Pandit Birju Maharaj died recently. He was the doyen of which one of the following Gharanas of Kathak?
Q11.
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Which one of the following States/UTs was connected with the Indian Railways network in the year 2021?
Q12.
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Who among the following is the Chairperson of the Goods and Services Tax Council?
Q13.
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Panchayati Raj Institutions are primarily the institutions of
Q14.
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Which one of the following does not fall under the jurisdiction of the apex court of India?
Q15.
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Which of the following is/are the right/rights mentioned in the 'American Declaration of Independence'?
1. Life
2. Liberty
3. Pursuit of Happiness
4. Fraternity
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q16.
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Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Commission of India?
Q17.
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Who among the following is the Head of the Committee appointed by the Supreme Court of India to enquire into the circumstances that led to the Prime Minister of India’s convoy being stuck for several minutes on a flyover in Punjab recently?
Q18.
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Which one of the following is correct in respect of total number of States and Union Territories in India?
Q19.
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The elections to the Lower House of the Parliament of India, held in 2019, constituted the
Q20.
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The Parliament of India is primarily based on the model of
Q21.
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When did Charaka Samhita originate?
Q22.
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The real beginning of western education in India can be dated from
Q23.
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Who among the following American Presidents described democracy as "Government of the People, for the People and by the People"?
Q24.
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The Khudai Khidmatgar (Servants of the God) was organized by
Q25.
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Which Chinese traveller in ancient India wrote the diary called 'Records of the Travels to Middle India'?
Q26.
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The Mahad Satyagraha of 1927 was organized by
Q27.
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Arthashastra, the classical work of Indian political thought, focuses primarily on
Q28.
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The idea of Planning in Independent India was drawn from
Q29.
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The 13^(th )Century text Lekhapaddhati gives us information on which one of the following topics?
Q30.
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The term Industrial Revolution was first used by
Q31.
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Early Buddhist sculptors did not show Buddha in human form. Through which of the following symbols was Buddha's presence shown by the early sculptors?
Q32.
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Nkrumah was one of the five leaders, who comprised the core of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM). He was the leader of which country in Africa?
Q33.
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The Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth-Seeking Society) was set up by
Q34.
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Snow, sleet and hail are the forms of
Q35.
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A person had visited a region in India and found trees, such as Khair, Neem, Khejri and Palas. Which one of the following regions is she/he expected to have visited?
Q36.
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Weathering, mass wasting, erosion and transportation are indicators of which one of the following processes?
Q37.
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According to the Indian Meteorological Department, which of the following is/are the feature/features of cloudburst?
1. Heavy precipitation in short period of time in a limited geographical area
2. It occurs generally during monsoon period and triggers flash flood and landslides
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q38.
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Consider the following features about a geographical phenomenon :
1. Torrents of snow and ice roaring down a steep mountainside
2. It is hazardous to skiers and mountaineers
3. It involves a mix of falling, rolling, sliding and flowing of materials
Which of the following phenomena can be identified with the above features?
Q39.
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Which one of the following is likely to be the most prevalent form of weathering in hot-tropical desert areas?
Q40.
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If you want to observe moraines, eskers and outwash plains, which one of the following Union Territories you may have to visit?
Q41.
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Consider the following statements :
1. Rocks do not remain in their original form for long and undergo transformation.
2. Transformation of rocks is caused by weathering, erosion and metamorphic action.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q42.
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According to the Forest Survey Report, 2021, area-wise which one of the following States have the largest forest cover in India?
Q43.
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While travelling to a hilly region, you notice a massive boulder, which was loosened by heavy rains and moved downhill. This has resulted due to which of the following processes?
1. Mass wasting
2. Erosion
3. Weathering
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q44.
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While watching news, you hear about a place, of which you had never heard earlier. You want to know more about the place and you want to locate it on the map. Which of the following is/are required for you to be able to locate the place on the map?
Q45.
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In India, rigid and stable elevated lands, denuded rocks and series of scarps are the features of which of the following?
Q46.
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Which of the following statements in respect of landslides are correct?
1. These occur only on gentle slopes during rain.
2. They generally occur in clay-rich soil.
3. Earthquakes trigger landslides.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q47.
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In a group discussion on shape and size of the Earth, three students stated the following points :
1. Student 1: The shape of the Earth is basically an oblate spheroid.
2. Student 2: The polar diameter of the Earth is more than the equatorial diameter.
3. Student 3: Bulge along the equatorial region is due to revolution of the Earth.
Who among the above students is/are correct?
General Science
General Science
Q1.
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Which one of the following is not an example of a redox reaction?
Q2.
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Refining of petroleum is carried out using which one of the following techniques?
Q3.
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Which one of the following is the correct order of the valencies of elements Ne, Si, N and Mg?
Q4.
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Which one of the following is the colour of hydrogen gas?
Q5.
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For an element with atomic number 35, which one of the following will be the correct number of electrons in its valence shell based on Bohr's model of an atom?
Q6.
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Which one of the following reactions is an example of decomposition reaction?
Q7.
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The mass number of argon is 40. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q8.
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Which one of the following allotropes of carbon is isomorphous with crystalline silicon?
Q9.
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Which one of the following is a chemical change?
Q10.
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Which one of the following is not a solution?
Q11.
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Which one of the following is a covalent compound?
Q12.
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Which one of the following is not a pigment?
Q13.
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Which one of the following statements about fertilizers is not correct?
Q14.
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Which one of the following is the correct molecular formula of ammonium carbonate if the valency of ammonium ion is (+1) and carbonate anion is (-2)?
Q15.
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Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Q16.
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A wooden box of mass 2 kg and dimensions (30 cm × 15 cm × 10 cm) is placed on a table with sides 30 cm and 10 cm touching the tabletop. Which one of the following is the approximate pressure exerted on the table?
Q17.
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The magnetic field produced by a current-carrying straight wire at a point outside the wire depends
Q18.
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What is the mass of a material, whose specific heat capacity is 400 J/(kg °C) for a rise in temperature from 15°C to 25°C, when heat received is 20 kJ ?
Q19.
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What is the current required to light a 60 W incandescent bulb in a domestic supply of 240 V ?
Q20.
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The time period of a 1 m long pendulum approximates to
Q21.
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An electric wire of resistance 50 ohm is cut into five equal wires. These wires are then connected in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance of this combination?
Q22.
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Which one of the following statements with respect to Global Positioning System (GPS) is not correct?
Q23.
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What is the magnification produced by a concave lens of focal length 10 cm, when an image is formed at a distance of 5 cm from the lens?
Q24.
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Which of the following statements correctly explains/explain the existence of a positive force between two electric charges?
1. Both the charges are positive.
2. Both the charges are negative.
3. Both the charges are oppositely charged.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q25.
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Evaporation from the surface of a given liquid takes place more rapidly when
Q26.
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A ball is thrown vertically upward with a speed of 40 m/s. The time taken by the ball to reach the maximum height would be approximately
Q27.
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What is the dimension of gravitational constant?
Q28.
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Inhabitants are unaware of the speed of rotation of the planet Earth because
1. the angular velocity is constant for each place on the Earth's surface
2. the atmosphere rotates with the Earth
3. there are no nearby objects, either stationary or moving at a rate different from that of the Earth
Which of the above is/are the correct explanation(s)?
Q29.
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Two resistors R~1~ and R~2~ arranged in parallel combination in an electrical closed circuit are made of the same material and of the same thickness. If the length of R~2~ is twice the length of R~1~, then the total resistance R satisfies
Q30.
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The specific latent heat of vaporization of a substance is the quantity of heat needed to change unit mass from
Q31.
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Why are the tyres of aircrafts made of conducting rubber?
1. So that the charge accumulated on the aircraft in flight, by rubbing the air, can easily be transferred to ground on landing.
2. So that the charge accumulated due to the operation of various electronic equipments in the aircraft in flight can easily be transferred to ground on landing.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q32.
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A mass M is dragged by a pulley on a horizontal plane by a force anti-parallel to its displacement. The work done in pulling the mass M is
Q33.
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A sound wave has a frequency of 1 kHz and wavelength 50 cm. How long will it take to travel 1 km?
Q34.
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The frequency of an alternating current is 3 Hz. It implies that
Q35.
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Which one of the following correctly represents the SI unit of resistivity?
Q36.
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The electric field lines from an isolated positively charged conducting sphere are
Q37.
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The twinkling of a star is due to the atmospheric
Q38.
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According to Fleming's right-hand rule, if the forefinger indicates the direction of the magnetic field and the thumb shows the direction of motion of the conductor, then the stretched middle finger will predict the direction of
Q39.
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A 5 N force is defined when a mass of 10 kg is accelerated with
Q40.
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The energy possessed by a body due to its change in position or shape is called
Q41.
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A boy of mass 52 kg jumps with a horizontal velocity of 2 m/s onto a stationary cart of mass 3 kg. The cart is fixed with frictionless wheels. Which one of the following would be the speed of the cart?
Q42.
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All objects experience a buoyancy when they are immersed in a fluid. Buoyancy is
Q43.
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Which one of the following plant plastids stores starch, oil and protein granules?
Q44.
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The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has recently categorized the Red Sanders (Red Sandalwood) into
Q45.
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Which one of the following statements about vacuoles' is not correct?
Q46.
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Which one of the following is caused by a bacterial pathogen?
Q47.
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Which one of the following plants has unisexual flowers?
Q48.
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Which one of the following groups is called 'amphibians of plant kingdom'?
Q49.
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In aquatic plants, large air sacs give them buoyancy effects. These sacs are surrounded by which one of the following types of tissues?
Q50.
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A cell is unable to synthesize lipids. Which of its cell organelles might be defective?
Q51.
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Which one of the following belongs to 'Pisces'?
Q52.
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Which of the following statements about living and non-living being is/are correct?
1. While living being can demonstrate growth and repair, non-living being cannot.
2. While living being demonstrates metabolic processes, non-living being does not.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q53.
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Which one of the following is the mechanism of action of oral contraceptive pills?