NDA General Ability 16 April 2023
DEFENCE 2023 Previous Year
3 hDuration
600Total Marks
150Questions
3Sections
Instructions
General instructions for this test:
- Duration: 3 h. The timer starts as soon as you begin and cannot be paused.
- Total questions: 150 across 3 section(s); maximum marks: 600.
- You are allowed 1 attempt(s) at this test.
- Use the question palette on the right to navigate. Answered questions are highlighted in green; questions marked for review are highlighted in yellow.
- Each question's marking scheme (correct / wrong) is shown on the question card. Unanswered questions receive zero marks.
- Switching tabs, exiting full-screen, or attempting to copy text is monitored. Repeated tab-switching may auto-submit the test.
- Your answers autosave as you navigate. Click Submit Test when you are done. The test will be auto-submitted when the timer expires.
No exam-specific instructions were provided for this paper.
Paper Structure
English
English
Q1.
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Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Spill the beans
Q2.
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Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Sit on the fence
Q3.
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Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Cook someone's goose
Q4.
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Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Be as sharp as a tack
Q5.
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Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Heath Robinson
Q6.
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Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
The lion's share
Q7.
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Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
From pillar to post
Q8.
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Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Disappear into thin air
Q9.
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Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
As thick as thieves
Q10.
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Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Put the screws on
Q11.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
He had the __audacity__ to blame him.
Q12.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Now we can have another __dazzling__ thought, as an outcome of my brilliant research!
Q13.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
There is __exponential__ growth in the development of the scientific researches in the recent few decades.
Q14.
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Directions:Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
In the winters, the countryside view is __bleak__ and the house is drafty.
Q15.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
He was known for his __sagacity__.
Q16.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The group held some __clandestine__ meetings to resolve the matter.
Q17.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Amid __commotion__ the leader and his supporters remained passive.
Q18.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The parental support can __fortify__ a child's learning.
Q19.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The river Ganges __culminates__ in the Bay of Bengal.
Q20.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
They are making plans for the __abatement__ of the nuisance within a specified time.
Q21.
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Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P __ripping roofs off houses and raising fears of__ Q __coast of Madagascar in the early hours,__ R __cyclone Emnati crashed into the southeastern__ S __flooding and food shortages in the region__
The correct sequence should be:
Q22.
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Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P __made it evolve__ Q __technologies and equipment has__ R __into a rare centre of excellence__ S __adoption of the latest__
The correct sequence should be:
Q23.
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Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P __avenues for the patients to indict__ Q __but rarely is it the other way round__ R __there are multiple legal__ S __the doctors__
The correct sequence should be:
Q24.
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Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P __for hours in the shop__ Q __a gunman who held__ R __a hostage__ S __demanded ransom of ₹10 lakh__
The correct sequence should be:
Q25.
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Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P __very difficult__ Q __the poor visibility__ R __made the movement of traffic__ S __due to fog__
The correct sequence should be:
Q26.
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Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
The correct sequence should be:
(P) __please mark the same__ /(Q) __be made in response to this notice__ /(R) __if you have any complaint to__/(S) __to the concerned authority__
Q27.
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Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P __living in Russia__ Q __country immediately__ R __Ukraine has urged its citizens__ S __to leave the__
The correct sequence should be:
Q28.
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Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P __flight, and each person__ Q __her own journey__ R __life is a solo__ S __makes his or__
The correct sequence should be:
Q29.
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Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P __because I feel__ Q __you remember it better__ R __when you write something,__ S __I make at least three drafts of a song__
The correct sequence should be:
Q30.
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Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P __ecology is protected and aquatic life thrives__ Q __we need to utilize the resources of water__ R __for different purposes while__ S __ensuring that its natural__
The correct sequence should be:
Q31.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Only three candidates are now in __contention__ for the title.
Q32.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
During the pandemic the __indigent__ people had to suffer a lot.
Q33.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
All my fishing __paraphernalia__ is in the car.
Q34.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
She had no idea what made him angry in one minute and __jovial__ the next.
Q35.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
It is sheer __lunacy__ to drive a car in this frosty weather.
Q36.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The thrill of over-speeding the vehicle can be __exhilarating__, but it is important not to take the consequences lightly.
Q37.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The __redemption__ will now depend on his new strategy of inclusiveness.
Q38.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The public watched in __astonishment__ as he took a sudden jump from the bridge.
Q39.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Drinking __inordinate__ amount of liquor is not good for health.
Q40.
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Operating on a child with cancer needs __meticulous__ planning and teamwork.
Q41.
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Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) __Whenever the sky is__ (b) __clear, you can see__ (c) __the stars in the night.__ (d) __No Error__
Q42.
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Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) __She wouldn't have__ (b) __has an accident,__ (c) __if she had driven carefully.__ (d) __No Error__
Q43.
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Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) __If you want__ (b) __to know the news__ (c) __you can read a newspaper.__ (d) __No Error__
Q44.
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Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) __I will watch film__ (b) __if I finish the work__ (c) __in time.__ (d) __No Error__
Q45.
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Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) __Over long periods of time,__ (b) __layers of sediments builds up__ (c) __to a height of a few kilometers.__ (d) __No Error__
Q46.
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Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) __In 1989, the government__ (b) __did an about-face and Iran restored__ (c) __it's family planning program.__ (d) __No Error__
Q47.
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Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) __I'm not working tomorrow,__ (b) __so I don't had to__ (c) __get up early.__ (d) __No Error__
Q48.
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Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) __She didn't__ (b) __tell anybody__ (c) __about her plans.__ (d) __No Error__
Q49.
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Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) __Columbus made his__ (b) __first voyage from Europe to America__ (c) __on 1492.__ (d) __No Error__
Q50.
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Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) __When a gas is__ (b) __cooled down it turns into a liquid__ (c) __from a process called condensation.__ (d) __No Error__
General Studies
General Studies
Q1.
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Consider the following statements about 'Exercise Sea Vigil-22':
1. Its aim is to assess India's preparedness in the domain of Maritime security and coastal defence.
2. Naval forces of USA and Japan also took part in the exercise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q2.
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Which one among the following villages was recently declared as India's first 24 × 7 solar-powered village?
Q3.
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Consider the following statements:
1. England is the only country that won the ICC T20 World Cup twice.
2. Virat Kohli is the only player to be adjudged as the Player of the Series in the ICC T20 World Cup twice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q4.
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The 4^(th) edition of joint military exercise 'DUSTLIK' between the Indian Army and the Uzbekistan Army was held in :
Q5.
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Which of the following is India's first privately developed rocket launched by ISRO recently?
Q6.
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Tableaux of which one of the following States was adjudged the best in the Republic Day Parade, 2023?
Q7.
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The UN COP-27 Summit relates to:
Q8.
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Which one of the following is not a main greenhouse gas?
Q9.
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Joint Military exercise 'Keen Sword 23' was conducted between :
Q10.
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Deendayal Port was earlier known as:
Q11.
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The Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School of Indian Army is situated at:
Q12.
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Which one among the following states is the leading producer of Manganese in India?
Q13.
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Which of the following scheme(s) is/are included under Bharatmala Pariyojana?
1. Develop the road connectivity to border areas
2. Development of coastal roads
3. Improvement in the efficiency of National Corridors
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q14.
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Plan allocation in agriculture and irrigation as percentage of total plan outlay was highest in:
Q15.
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By which one of the following amendments, was Article 51A, relating to the Fundamental Duties, inserted into the Constitution of India?
Q16.
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Who among the following was author of the famous Sanskrit work 'Mrichchhakatika'?
Q17.
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Freedom fighter Kanaklata Barua was martyred in:
Q18.
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At which one of the following places did the Danes establish their settlement in India?
Q19.
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Which one of the following kingdoms was founded by the two brothers Harihar and Bukka?
Q20.
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Which one among the following statements about the Mansabdari system is correct?
Q21.
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Yashovarman was ruler of which one of the following kingdoms?
Q22.
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The Treaty of Yandabo was concluded as part of which one of the following wars?
Q23.
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Which Renaissance artist painted 'The Last Supper'?
Q24.
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The Battle of Rezang La, an epic battle in hostile conditions, was fought by the Indian Army in:
Q25.
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Which of the following statements about Lachit Borphukan is/are correct?
1. He was a General of the Ahom Force.
2. He is known for his leadership in the Battle of Saraighat.
3. Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal is given to the best cadet at the National Defence Academy.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q26.
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Which one among the following districts of Eastern India held a referendum in 1947 to decide whether or not to join Pakistan?
Q27.
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Near which one of the following cities in India have large statues of Kushana rulers been discovered?
Q28.
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Which one of the following statements about Rabatak inscription is not correct?
Q29.
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Which one of the following European explorer conquered Mexico?
Q30.
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Who among the following composed the 'Prayag Prashasti' of Samudragupta?
Q31.
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Which one among the following rulers established Pataliputra as the capital of the Magadhan Empire?
Q32.
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Which Governor General of Bengal underwent impeachment proceedings in the British Parliament?
Q33.
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According to Koppen's climatic classifications, the Great Northern Plains of India have which one of the following climates?
Q34.
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Which one of the following is the correct sequence of arrangement of the given planets in descending order of their density (in gm/cm^(3))?
Q35.
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Which one among the following is the northernmost geographical location?
Q36.
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In the soil-forming regime, which one of the following occurs in a region where evapotranspiration exceeds precipitation significantly?
Q37.
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Which one of the following tribes from India's North-East had the earliest known association with cultivation and production of tea?
Q38.
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Which one of the following is not a cold current?
Q39.
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Which one of the following is found in the innermost part of the Earth?
Q40.
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Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Hypocenter is the point on the surface of the Earth, nearest to the focus.
2. Velocity of earthquake waves is higher in denser materials.
3. P waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface of the Earth.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q41.
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Consider the following statements:
1. Distance between the longitudes becomes zero on North Pole and South Pole.
2. Distance between the longitudes is maximum on the Equator.
3. Number of longitudes is more than number of latitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q42.
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The process of Podsolization is predominantly found in:
Q43.
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If it is 12 noon in New Delhi, what will be the time in London, UK?
Q44.
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Which one of the following is the lowermost/innermost intrusive igneous rock?
Q45.
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Which one of the following is not an igneous rock?
Q46.
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Which of the following tree species is/are found on Himalayas?
1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Rosewood
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Q47.
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Which of the following positions of Sun, Earth and Moon is/are suitable for Spring Tide?
1. SYZYGY Conjunction
2. SYZYGY Opposition
3. Quadrature
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Q48.
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In terms of geological time scale, the quaternary period consists of two epochs. They are:
General Science
General Science
Q1.
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Which one of the following statements about X-rays is not true?
Q2.
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Which among the following is the popular method for manufacture of ammonia?
Q3.
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What is the specific purpose of using potassium hydroxide during the saponification process?
Q4.
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Equal volume of all gases, when measured at the same temperature and pressure, contain an equal number of particles. Who proposed the above law?
Q5.
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An iron nail dipped in copper sulphate solution turns brown. This is due to which one of the following types of reactions?
Q6.
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Which among the following is the correct arrangement of halogens in the increasing order of their oxidizing nature?
Q7.
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Mica is mainly used in:
Q8.
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For manufacturing of glass, which among the following is used as a source of silica?
Q9.
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Who among the following is not a recipient of Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2022?
Q10.
mcq single
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Airbags work on the principle of a chemical reaction triggered by the impact producing a gaseous product that causes a sudden volume change. Which one among the following chemical conversions is responsible for this?
Q11.
mcq single
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Which among the following statements is not correct with respect to allotropes of Carbon?
Q12.
mcq single
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Which one of the following apparatus is used for separating benzene and water mixture?
Q13.
mcq single
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Which one of the following is the correct arrangement of metals in the decreasing order of their reactivity?
Q14.
mcq single
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Toothpaste prevents tooth decay by:
Q15.
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Copper sulphate crystals available in the market are blue coloured crystals. By careful heating, they turn to white colour. Which one of the following is responsible for the blue colour?
Q16.
mcq single
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Which of the hydrocarbons are arranged as per the increasing order of their boiling points?
Q17.
mcq single
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A particle is moving in a circle of radius R with a constant speed v. Its average acceleration over the time when it moves over half the circle is :
Q18.
mcq single
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Which one of the following is an example of Second Class Lever?
Q19.
mcq single
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The power required to lift a mass of 8⋅0 kg up a vertical distance of 4 m in 2 s is (taking acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s^(2)):
Q20.
mcq single
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A railway wagon (open at the top) of mass M~1~ is moving with speed v~1~ along a straight track. As a result of rain, after some time it gets partially filled with water so that the mass of the wagon becomes M~2~ and speed becomes v~2~. Taking the rain to be falling vertically and the water stationery inside the wagon, the relation between the two speeds v~1~ and v~2~ is :
Q21.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
An electric bulb is rated as 220 V and 80 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the power rating would be:
Q22.
mcq single
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Sand falls vertically on a conveyor belt at a work rate of 0⋅1 kg/s. In order to keep the belt moving at a uniform speed of 2 m/s, the force required to be applied on the belt is :
Q23.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Two forces of 5⋅0 N each are acting on a point mass. If the angle between the forces is 60°, then the net force acting on the point mass has magnitude close to :
Q24.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
In an electric circuit, a wire of resistance 10 Ω is used. If this wire is stretched to a length double of its original value, the current in the circuit would become :
Q25.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Which one of the following statements is not true for a flute, a musical instrument?
Q26.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Shown in the figure are two plane mirrors XY and YZ (XY ⊥ YZ) joined at their edge. Also shown is a light ray falling on one of the mirrors and reflected back parallel to its original path as a result of this arrangement. The two mirrors are now rotated by an angle θ to their new position X'YZ', as shown. As a result the new reflected ray is at an angle α from the original reflected ray. Then :


Q27.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
A positive charge is moving towards south in a space where magnetic field is pointing in the north direction. The moving charge will experience :
Q28.
mcq single
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Which one of the following telescopes contains only mirrors?
Q29.
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Which one of the following astronomers proved that the Earth and other planets revolve around the Sun?
Q30.
mcq single
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In the dispersion of white light by a common glass prism, which one among the following is correct?
Q31.
mcq single
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One block of 2⋅0 kg mass is placed on top of another block of 3⋅0 kg mass. The coefficient of static friction between the two blocks is 0⋅2. The bottom block is pulled with a horizontal force F such that both the blocks move together without slipping. Taking acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s^(2), the maximum value of the frictional force is :
Q32.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Two identical containers X and Y are connected at the bottom by a thin tube of negligible volume. The tube has a valve in it, as shown in the figure. Initially container X has a liquid filled up to height h in it and container Y is empty. When the valve is opened, both containers have equal amount of liquid in equilibrium. If the initial (before the valve is opened) potential energy of the liquid is P~1~ and the final potential energy is P~2~ then :


Q33.
mcq single
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What is the total resistance in the following circuit element?


Q34.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
A sphere of volume V is made of a material with lower density than water. While on Earth, it floats on water with its volume f~1~V (f~1~ < 1) submerged. On the other hand, on a spaceship accelerating with acceleration a < g (g is the acceleration due to gravity on Earth) in outer space, its submerged volume in water is f~2~V. Then:
Q35.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
A mass is attached to a spring that hangs vertically. The extension produced in the spring is 6 cm on Earth. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Moon is one-sixth of its value on the surface of the Earth. The extension of the spring on the Moon would be:
Q36.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Two identical spring balances S~1~ and S~2~ are connected one after the other and are held vertically as shown in the figure. A mass of 10 kg is hanging from S~2~. If the readings on S~1~ and S~2~ are W~1~ and W~2~ respectively, then :


Q37.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Which one among the following is true for the speed of sound in a given medium?
Q38.
mcq single
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A stone is thrown horizontally from the top of a 20 m high building with a speed of 12 m/s. It hits the ground at a distance R from the building. Taking g = 10 m/s^(2) and neglecting air resistance will give :
Q39.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Which one of the following statements is true?
Q40.
mcq single
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A rectangle ABCD is kept in front of a concave mirror of focal length f with its corners A and B being, respectively, at distances 2f and 3f from the mirror with AB along the principal axis as shown in the figure. It forms an image A'B'C'D' in front of the mirror. What is the ratio of B'C' to A'D'?


Q41.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of fungi?
Q42.
mcq single
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Which one of the following structures is not present in a prokaryotic cell?
Q43.
mcq single
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Which one of the following statements about bryophytes is not correct?
Q44.
mcq single
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Consider the following statements regarding cell wall composition :
1. Bacterial cell wall is made of peptidoglycan.
2. Fungal cell wall is made of cellulose.
3. Animals lack cell wall and have extracellular matrix made up of sugar and proteins.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q45.
mcq single
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One advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that it helps species to survive over long evolutionary time. This is because sexual reproduction produces :
Q46.
mcq single
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Among the following, which is not the correct method for keeping the curd?
Q47.
mcq single
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Organisms capable of using CO~2~ as principal carbon source are called:
Q48.
mcq single
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Browning of the chopped apple can be minimized by :
Q49.
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When yeast cells are O~2~ starved, fermentation serves as the source of energy. This results in the production of:
Q50.
mcq single
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During a laboratory experiment, a student immerses epidermal leaf peel in a hypertonic solution. After some time, the student examined the cells under a microscope and observed that:
Q51.
mcq single
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In a plant cell, which one of the following contains their own DNA?
Q52.
mcq single
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Which one of the following structures or components is not always present in living cells?