NDA General Ability 1st September 2024
DEFENCE 2024 Previous Year
3 hDuration
600Total Marks
150Questions
3Sections
Instructions
General instructions for this test:
- Duration: 3 h. The timer starts as soon as you begin and cannot be paused.
- Total questions: 150 across 3 section(s); maximum marks: 600.
- You are allowed 1 attempt(s) at this test.
- Use the question palette on the right to navigate. Answered questions are highlighted in green; questions marked for review are highlighted in yellow.
- Each question's marking scheme (correct / wrong) is shown on the question card. Unanswered questions receive zero marks.
- Switching tabs, exiting full-screen, or attempting to copy text is monitored. Repeated tab-switching may auto-submit the test.
- Your answers autosave as you navigate. Click Submit Test when you are done. The test will be auto-submitted when the timer expires.
No exam-specific instructions were provided for this paper.
Paper Structure
English
English
Q1.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the response (a), (b), (c) or (d), which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
A white lie
Q2.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the response (a), (b), (c) or (d), which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Sit on the fence
Q3.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the response (a), (b), (c) or (d), which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Count your blessings
Q4.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the response (a), (b), (c) or (d), which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Have the last laugh
Q5.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the response (a), (b), (c) or (d), which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Bad blood
Q6.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative.
If I were you
Q7.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative.
We saw
Q8.
mcq single
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Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative.
Since you have been touring all day
Q9.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative.
I wish
Q10.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative.
Preeti suggests
Q11.
mcq single
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Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative.
What would you do
Q12.
mcq single
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Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative.
he efforts of the security services have not been quite
Q13.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative.
I hope the bus comes soon because
Q14.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative.
Someone
Q15.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative.
His condition is serious, but
Q16.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the answer sheet accordingly.
She performed all her duties __conscientiously__
Q17.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the answer sheet accordingly.
All human beings are __fallible__
Q18.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the answer sheet accordingly.
His words were __vague__
Q19.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the answer sheet accordingly.
She has always been __disdainful __of poor people
Q20.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the answer sheet accordingly.
These risks are __incidental__ to the work of a firefighter
Q21.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
**Passage:**
Directions ; In this section, there is a passage that has some blank spaces, each with four words or group of words. Select whichever word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Most of our food comes from agriculture, so we tend to believe that it is ______ (1) of natural biota. This is not true. In nature, _______ (2) plants and animals ______ (3) to the rigours of natural selection. Only the fittest survive. _______ (4) wild populations have numerous traits for competitiveness, resistance to parasites, ________ (5) to adverse conditions,_______ (6) other aspects of vigour. In contrast, populations grown for many _______ (7) under the pampered conditions of agriculture tend to lose these traits, because they _______ (8) for production, not resilience. For example, a high-producing plant _______ (9) lacks resistance to drought is ________ (10) and the resistance to drought is ignored. Also, in the process of breeding plants for maximum production, all genetic variation is eliminated.
---
What would come in blank space (2)?
Q22.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
**Passage:**
Directions ; In this section, there is a passage that has some blank spaces, each with four words or group of words. Select whichever word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Most of our food comes from agriculture, so we tend to believe that it is ______ (1) of natural biota. This is not true. In nature, _______ (2) plants and animals ______ (3) to the rigours of natural selection. Only the fittest survive. _______ (4) wild populations have numerous traits for competitiveness, resistance to parasites, ________ (5) to adverse conditions,_______ (6) other aspects of vigour. In contrast, populations grown for many _______ (7) under the pampered conditions of agriculture tend to lose these traits, because they _______ (8) for production, not resilience. For example, a high-producing plant _______ (9) lacks resistance to drought is ________ (10) and the resistance to drought is ignored. Also, in the process of breeding plants for maximum production, all genetic variation is eliminated.
---
What would come in blank space (4)?
Q23.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
**Passage:**
Directions ; In this section, there is a passage that has some blank spaces, each with four words or group of words. Select whichever word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Most of our food comes from agriculture, so we tend to believe that it is ______ (1) of natural biota. This is not true. In nature, _______ (2) plants and animals ______ (3) to the rigours of natural selection. Only the fittest survive. _______ (4) wild populations have numerous traits for competitiveness, resistance to parasites, ________ (5) to adverse conditions,_______ (6) other aspects of vigour. In contrast, populations grown for many _______ (7) under the pampered conditions of agriculture tend to lose these traits, because they _______ (8) for production, not resilience. For example, a high-producing plant _______ (9) lacks resistance to drought is ________ (10) and the resistance to drought is ignored. Also, in the process of breeding plants for maximum production, all genetic variation is eliminated.
---
What would come in blank space (7)?
Q24.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
**Passage:**
Directions ; In this section, there is a passage that has some blank spaces, each with four words or group of words. Select whichever word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Most of our food comes from agriculture, so we tend to believe that it is ______ (1) of natural biota. This is not true. In nature, _______ (2) plants and animals ______ (3) to the rigours of natural selection. Only the fittest survive. _______ (4) wild populations have numerous traits for competitiveness, resistance to parasites, ________ (5) to adverse conditions,_______ (6) other aspects of vigour. In contrast, populations grown for many _______ (7) under the pampered conditions of agriculture tend to lose these traits, because they _______ (8) for production, not resilience. For example, a high-producing plant _______ (9) lacks resistance to drought is ________ (10) and the resistance to drought is ignored. Also, in the process of breeding plants for maximum production, all genetic variation is eliminated.
---
What would come in blank space (6)?
Q25.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
**Passage:**
Directions ; In this section, there is a passage that has some blank spaces, each with four words or group of words. Select whichever word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Most of our food comes from agriculture, so we tend to believe that it is ______ (1) of natural biota. This is not true. In nature, _______ (2) plants and animals ______ (3) to the rigours of natural selection. Only the fittest survive. _______ (4) wild populations have numerous traits for competitiveness, resistance to parasites, ________ (5) to adverse conditions,_______ (6) other aspects of vigour. In contrast, populations grown for many _______ (7) under the pampered conditions of agriculture tend to lose these traits, because they _______ (8) for production, not resilience. For example, a high-producing plant _______ (9) lacks resistance to drought is ________ (10) and the resistance to drought is ignored. Also, in the process of breeding plants for maximum production, all genetic variation is eliminated.
---
What would come in blank space (1)?
Q26.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
**Passage:**
Directions ; In this section, there is a passage that has some blank spaces, each with four words or group of words. Select whichever word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Most of our food comes from agriculture, so we tend to believe that it is ______ (1) of natural biota. This is not true. In nature, _______ (2) plants and animals ______ (3) to the rigours of natural selection. Only the fittest survive. _______ (4) wild populations have numerous traits for competitiveness, resistance to parasites, ________ (5) to adverse conditions,_______ (6) other aspects of vigour. In contrast, populations grown for many _______ (7) under the pampered conditions of agriculture tend to lose these traits, because they _______ (8) for production, not resilience. For example, a high-producing plant _______ (9) lacks resistance to drought is ________ (10) and the resistance to drought is ignored. Also, in the process of breeding plants for maximum production, all genetic variation is eliminated.
---
What would come in blank space (5)?
Q27.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
**Passage:**
Directions ; In this section, there is a passage that has some blank spaces, each with four words or group of words. Select whichever word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Most of our food comes from agriculture, so we tend to believe that it is ______ (1) of natural biota. This is not true. In nature, _______ (2) plants and animals ______ (3) to the rigours of natural selection. Only the fittest survive. _______ (4) wild populations have numerous traits for competitiveness, resistance to parasites, ________ (5) to adverse conditions,_______ (6) other aspects of vigour. In contrast, populations grown for many _______ (7) under the pampered conditions of agriculture tend to lose these traits, because they _______ (8) for production, not resilience. For example, a high-producing plant _______ (9) lacks resistance to drought is ________ (10) and the resistance to drought is ignored. Also, in the process of breeding plants for maximum production, all genetic variation is eliminated.
---
What would come in blank space (9)?
Q28.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
**Passage:**
Directions ; In this section, there is a passage that has some blank spaces, each with four words or group of words. Select whichever word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Most of our food comes from agriculture, so we tend to believe that it is ______ (1) of natural biota. This is not true. In nature, _______ (2) plants and animals ______ (3) to the rigours of natural selection. Only the fittest survive. _______ (4) wild populations have numerous traits for competitiveness, resistance to parasites, ________ (5) to adverse conditions,_______ (6) other aspects of vigour. In contrast, populations grown for many _______ (7) under the pampered conditions of agriculture tend to lose these traits, because they _______ (8) for production, not resilience. For example, a high-producing plant _______ (9) lacks resistance to drought is ________ (10) and the resistance to drought is ignored. Also, in the process of breeding plants for maximum production, all genetic variation is eliminated.
---
What would come in blank space (8)?
Q29.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
**Passage:**
Directions ; In this section, there is a passage that has some blank spaces, each with four words or group of words. Select whichever word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Most of our food comes from agriculture, so we tend to believe that it is ______ (1) of natural biota. This is not true. In nature, _______ (2) plants and animals ______ (3) to the rigours of natural selection. Only the fittest survive. _______ (4) wild populations have numerous traits for competitiveness, resistance to parasites, ________ (5) to adverse conditions,_______ (6) other aspects of vigour. In contrast, populations grown for many _______ (7) under the pampered conditions of agriculture tend to lose these traits, because they _______ (8) for production, not resilience. For example, a high-producing plant _______ (9) lacks resistance to drought is ________ (10) and the resistance to drought is ignored. Also, in the process of breeding plants for maximum production, all genetic variation is eliminated.
---
What would come in blank space (10)?
Q30.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
**Passage:**
Directions ; In this section, there is a passage that has some blank spaces, each with four words or group of words. Select whichever word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Most of our food comes from agriculture, so we tend to believe that it is ______ (1) of natural biota. This is not true. In nature, _______ (2) plants and animals ______ (3) to the rigours of natural selection. Only the fittest survive. _______ (4) wild populations have numerous traits for competitiveness, resistance to parasites, ________ (5) to adverse conditions,_______ (6) other aspects of vigour. In contrast, populations grown for many _______ (7) under the pampered conditions of agriculture tend to lose these traits, because they _______ (8) for production, not resilience. For example, a high-producing plant _______ (9) lacks resistance to drought is ________ (10) and the resistance to drought is ignored. Also, in the process of breeding plants for maximum production, all genetic variation is eliminated.
---
What would come in blank space (3)?
Q31.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence have four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences and mark your response accordingly.
P. the global economic weight from the advanced economies
Q. that there was a major shift in
R. and Central Bank Governors, in recognition of the fact
S. the G20 was formed in 1999, as a forum of Finance Ministers
Q32.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence have four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences and mark your response accordingly.
P. but it is virtually covered by a dome-shaped
Q. Antarctica is a continent
R. nearly twice as large as Australia
S. ice sheet nearly 2 miles thick
Q33.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence have four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences and mark your response accordingly.
P. the conflicts and disputes in their mind
Q. music not only relieves the burden
R. on children and the young
S. but also alleviates
Q34.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence have four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences and mark your response accordingly.
P. aquaculture nation in the world and
Q. India’s products are exported to many nations
R. fish producing and the second largest
S. India is the third largest
Q35.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence have four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences and mark your response accordingly.
P. good quality elementary education conforming
Q. as a fundamental right of all children
R. the Right to Education Act (RTE) mandates
S. to the standards and norms specified in the Act
Q36.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
The police department’s image was __tarnished__ after the high-profile murder case.
Q37.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
There are many __elusive__ questions in philosophy.
Q38.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Cleaning this mess is a __mammoth__ task.
Q39.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Sages and seers have __cautioned__ that the path towards enlightenment is full of illusory traps.
Q40.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
The officer reported the details of the mission in a __monotonous__ manner.
Q41.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each of the following sentences has word(s) underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word(s) belong(s) to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
__Adders__ are the only poisonous snakes found across Britain
Q42.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each of the following sentences has word(s) underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word(s) belong(s) to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
She spoke to him once __since__ he has been in town
Q43.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each of the following sentences has word(s) underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word(s) belong(s) to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
I don’t really want to go. Besides, it’s too late __now__
Q44.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each of the following sentences has word(s) underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word(s) belong(s) to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Look at __that__ man over there
Q45.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
Directions : Each of the following sentences has word(s) underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word(s) belong(s) to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
The plane is ready for __take-off__
Q46.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
**Passage:**
Directions : In this section, you have a short passage. After the passage, you will find some items based on the passage. Read the passage carefully and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and the opinion of author only.
We live in a time when globalisation is rapidly encompassing travel, information, trade and investment. The internet ties people together in ways unimagined a few years ago. The globalisation of health, however, remains an elusive goal, similar to the globalisation of economic well-being. Laurie Garrett, in The Coming Plague, describes an unwelcome form of globalisation: the globalisation of disease. Garrett examines the recent history of emerging diseases such as AIDS, Ebola, Hantavirus, Rift Valley Fever, Legionnaires’ disease, and others. She also explains the resurgence of familiar diseases like tuberculosis, cholera, and pneumonia as a consequence of the widespread and unwise use of antibiotics. Many of the new diseases are clearly linked to changes in land use, which ~ brings humans into close contacts with rodents or other animals that harbour viruses previously unknown to medicine and often deadly to humans. Resurgent diseases, by contrast, are a creation of our medical practice. By treating people with antibiotics without restraint, we unknowingly select strains that are immune to the antibiotics and that pass on their resistant genes to unrelated bacteria by way of plasmid transfer. The heroes of her book are the women and men on the frontlines of epidemiology. Garrett makes a plea for a greater commitment from our universities, medical schools, and government agencies to train workers who will be capable of recognizing new diseases and who will be able to move about equally well in the laboratory, the hospital and the field in pursuit of knowledge and public-health intervention around the world.
---
According to the passage, globalisation of health has become imperative due to
Q47.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
**Passage:**
Directions : In this section, you have a short passage. After the passage, you will find some items based on the passage. Read the passage carefully and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and the opinion of author only.
We live in a time when globalisation is rapidly encompassing travel, information, trade and investment. The internet ties people together in ways unimagined a few years ago. The globalisation of health, however, remains an elusive goal, similar to the globalisation of economic well-being. Laurie Garrett, in The Coming Plague, describes an unwelcome form of globalisation: the globalisation of disease. Garrett examines the recent history of emerging diseases such as AIDS, Ebola, Hantavirus, Rift Valley Fever, Legionnaires’ disease, and others. She also explains the resurgence of familiar diseases like tuberculosis, cholera, and pneumonia as a consequence of the widespread and unwise use of antibiotics. Many of the new diseases are clearly linked to changes in land use, which ~ brings humans into close contacts with rodents or other animals that harbour viruses previously unknown to medicine and often deadly to humans. Resurgent diseases, by contrast, are a creation of our medical practice. By treating people with antibiotics without restraint, we unknowingly select strains that are immune to the antibiotics and that pass on their resistant genes to unrelated bacteria by way of plasmid transfer. The heroes of her book are the women and men on the frontlines of epidemiology. Garrett makes a plea for a greater commitment from our universities, medical schools, and government agencies to train workers who will be capable of recognizing new diseases and who will be able to move about equally well in the laboratory, the hospital and the field in pursuit of knowledge and public-health intervention around the world.
---
According to the passage, resurgent diseases are affected by:
1. Medical practices
2. Overuse of antibiotics
3. Emergence of new strains
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q48.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
**Passage:**
Directions : In this section, you have a short passage. After the passage, you will find some items based on the passage. Read the passage carefully and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and the opinion of author only.
We live in a time when globalisation is rapidly encompassing travel, information, trade and investment. The internet ties people together in ways unimagined a few years ago. The globalisation of health, however, remains an elusive goal, similar to the globalisation of economic well-being. Laurie Garrett, in The Coming Plague, describes an unwelcome form of globalisation: the globalisation of disease. Garrett examines the recent history of emerging diseases such as AIDS, Ebola, Hantavirus, Rift Valley Fever, Legionnaires’ disease, and others. She also explains the resurgence of familiar diseases like tuberculosis, cholera, and pneumonia as a consequence of the widespread and unwise use of antibiotics. Many of the new diseases are clearly linked to changes in land use, which ~ brings humans into close contacts with rodents or other animals that harbour viruses previously unknown to medicine and often deadly to humans. Resurgent diseases, by contrast, are a creation of our medical practice. By treating people with antibiotics without restraint, we unknowingly select strains that are immune to the antibiotics and that pass on their resistant genes to unrelated bacteria by way of plasmid transfer. The heroes of her book are the women and men on the frontlines of epidemiology. Garrett makes a plea for a greater commitment from our universities, medical schools, and government agencies to train workers who will be capable of recognizing new diseases and who will be able to move about equally well in the laboratory, the hospital and the field in pursuit of knowledge and public-health intervention around the world.
---
What according to the passage is the 'unwelcome form of the globalization'?
1. Globalization of the diseases
2. Elusive goal of globalization
3. History of fatal diseases
4. Selective use of antibiotics
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q49.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
**Passage:**
Directions : In this section, you have a short passage. After the passage, you will find some items based on the passage. Read the passage carefully and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and the opinion of author only.
We live in a time when globalisation is rapidly encompassing travel, information, trade and investment. The internet ties people together in ways unimagined a few years ago. The globalisation of health, however, remains an elusive goal, similar to the globalisation of economic well-being. Laurie Garrett, in The Coming Plague, describes an unwelcome form of globalisation: the globalisation of disease. Garrett examines the recent history of emerging diseases such as AIDS, Ebola, Hantavirus, Rift Valley Fever, Legionnaires’ disease, and others. She also explains the resurgence of familiar diseases like tuberculosis, cholera, and pneumonia as a consequence of the widespread and unwise use of antibiotics. Many of the new diseases are clearly linked to changes in land use, which ~ brings humans into close contacts with rodents or other animals that harbour viruses previously unknown to medicine and often deadly to humans. Resurgent diseases, by contrast, are a creation of our medical practice. By treating people with antibiotics without restraint, we unknowingly select strains that are immune to the antibiotics and that pass on their resistant genes to unrelated bacteria by way of plasmid transfer. The heroes of her book are the women and men on the frontlines of epidemiology. Garrett makes a plea for a greater commitment from our universities, medical schools, and government agencies to train workers who will be capable of recognizing new diseases and who will be able to move about equally well in the laboratory, the hospital and the field in pursuit of knowledge and public-health intervention around the world.
---
What is the meaning of the word "epidemiology" in the passage?
Q50.
mcq single
+4 / 1.33
**Passage:**
Directions : In this section, you have a short passage. After the passage, you will find some items based on the passage. Read the passage carefully and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and the opinion of author only.
We live in a time when globalisation is rapidly encompassing travel, information, trade and investment. The internet ties people together in ways unimagined a few years ago. The globalisation of health, however, remains an elusive goal, similar to the globalisation of economic well-being. Laurie Garrett, in The Coming Plague, describes an unwelcome form of globalisation: the globalisation of disease. Garrett examines the recent history of emerging diseases such as AIDS, Ebola, Hantavirus, Rift Valley Fever, Legionnaires’ disease, and others. She also explains the resurgence of familiar diseases like tuberculosis, cholera, and pneumonia as a consequence of the widespread and unwise use of antibiotics. Many of the new diseases are clearly linked to changes in land use, which ~ brings humans into close contacts with rodents or other animals that harbour viruses previously unknown to medicine and often deadly to humans. Resurgent diseases, by contrast, are a creation of our medical practice. By treating people with antibiotics without restraint, we unknowingly select strains that are immune to the antibiotics and that pass on their resistant genes to unrelated bacteria by way of plasmid transfer. The heroes of her book are the women and men on the frontlines of epidemiology. Garrett makes a plea for a greater commitment from our universities, medical schools, and government agencies to train workers who will be capable of recognizing new diseases and who will be able to move about equally well in the laboratory, the hospital and the field in pursuit of knowledge and public-health intervention around the world.
---
According to the passage, many new diseases are emerging due to change in land use because
General Studies
General Studies
Q1.
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Which one among the following Joint Military Exercises was NOT conducted between India and USA?
Q2.
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Consider the following statements:
1. Kozhikode has been included in UNESCO's creative cities network as the 'City of Music'
2. Garba of Gujarat has been declared by UNESCO as an intangible cultural heritage
3. Gwalior has been included in UNESCO's creative cities net- work as the 'City of Literature'
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Q3.
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Consider the following statements:
1. India has secured 10th rank in International Shipment category in World Bank's Logistics Perform- ance Index Report-2023
2. Global Maritime India Summit- 2023 was held in Vishakhapatnam
3. 'Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047' was launched during Global Maritime India Summit-2023
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Q4.
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Consider the following statements:
1. First Indian Military Heritage festival was inaugurated in Octo- ber 2023 in Pune
2. First Green Hydrogen Fuel Cell Bus was flagged off in India in Bangalore
3. South Africa chaired the 15th BRICS Summit held in 2023
4. Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra was flagged off in 2023 from Jharkhand
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Q5.
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ASEAN-India Millet Festival-2023, organized by Indian Mission to ASEAN, was held in which one of the following countries?
Q6.
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In January 2024, India has entered into a bilateral agreement through which it will provide grant assistance to a country to construct a 20 feet Bailey bridge. Identify the country.
Q7.
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Before the inception of the First Five year Plan, which among the following Plans were initiated in India?
1. Bombay Plan
2. Peoples Plan
3. Sarvodaya Plan
4. Gandhian Plan
Select the answer using the code given below :
Q8.
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Which among the following statements with regard to Five Year Plans in India is/are correct?
1. The First and Ninth five year plans accorded high priority to agriculture
2. The Third Plan was based on the Harrod-Domar Model
3. Seventh Plan focused on food, work and productivity
4. The Ninth five year plan emphasized on massive investments in public sector
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q9.
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Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of setting up of Planning Commission in the 1950s in India?
1. To increase production and offering opportunities to all for employment
2. To make assessment of all resources of the country
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q10.
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"Not me, but you" is the motto of which one of the following youth organizations/schemes?
Q11.
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"Fitness ka dose, aadha ghanta roz" campaign, is associated with
Q12.
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Consider the following statements about the Linguistic Reorganization of the States:
1. Gandhiji, in 1948, had argued for the reorganization of provinces on a linguistic basis
2. The Constituent Assembly recommended it to be incorporated in the Constitution of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q13.
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In the passing of a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha has limited powers in that it shall return the Bill, with or without any recommendation, within the stipulated time of
Q14.
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Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about NATO ?
Q15.
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Which of the following statements with regard to Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. Freedoms under this Article are not absolute
2. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the exercise of freedoms under this Article
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q16.
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Consider the following statements:
1. The duties of the Attorney General of India are to give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters, and to perform such other duties of a legal character, as may from time to time be referred to or assigned to him by the President of India
2. The Solicitor General of India is the secondary Law Officer of the country, who assists the Attorney General, and is himself assisted by several Additional Solicitor Generals of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q17.
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Which of the following statements about 'ULLAS' scheme is/are NOT correct?
1. It's a Centrally Sponsored scheme which aims at securing childhood for street children
2. It's a scheme aligned with National Education Policy-2020 which aims at empowering adults aged 15 or above who could not get due schooling
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q18.
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In which Schedule of the Constitution of India, provisions as to disquali- fication on grounds of defection are given?
Q19.
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Which of the following Committees does NOT consist of Members from the Upper House of the Parliament?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Under- takings
Select the answer using the code given below :
Q20.
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Which of the following is NOT a part of the five principles enshrined in the 'Panchsheel' agreement signed by India and China in 1954 ?
Q21.
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The first cotton mill in British India which began production in 1856 was set up by
Q22.
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Inspired by the Dandi March by Mahatma Gandhi, in Tamilnadu, C Rajagopalachari led a salt march from
Q23.
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Which one of the following statements about the Industrial Revolution is correct?
Q24.
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Vijayanagara rulers claimed that they were ruling on behalf of
Q25.
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Who among the following was the last Governor-General of India before the office was permanently abolished?
Q26.
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Domingo Paes describes a king in these words: 'Of medium height, and of fair complexion and good figure, rather fat than thin; he has on his face signs of smallpox'. Identify the king from the options given below.
Q27.
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Acharya Vinoba Bhave received the first donation of land under the Bhoodan Movement at
Q28.
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Freedom Fighter Kanaklata Barua sacrificed her life while participating in
Q29.
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Maize (makka) was introduced into India via
Q30.
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Taxila was the capital of which one among the following Mahajanapadas of ancient India?
Q31.
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Consider the following facts of the rivers of the Indus system:
1. The Satluj originates in Tibet where it is known as Langchen Khambab
2. The Satluj is a classic example of an antecedent river
3. The Jhelum is the largest tributary of the Indus System
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q32.
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Which one among the following state- ments with reference to the black cotton soils of India is NOT correct?
Q33.
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The lowest part of most bolsons is occupied by a landform called playa. Which category of landform formation does it represent?
Q34.
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Which of the following tributaries is/are correctly matched with the Deccan Rivers?
**Tributary**
**River**
1.
Bhavani
Krishna
2.
Kabini
Kaveri
3.
Manjra
Godavari
4.
Bhima
Mahanadi
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q35.
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Which of the following is/are east flowing rivers in India?
1. Palar
2. Periyar
3. Pennar
4. Kalinadi
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q36.
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Consider the following statements regarding River Brahmaputra :
1. It rises in Tibet, near Lake Mansarovar
2. It takes a "U" turn near Namcha Barwa and enters India through a gorge
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q37.
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Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List – I
(Hydroelectric Power Plant)
List - II
(State)
A.
Doyang
1.
Arunachal Pradesh
B.
Gomuti
2.
Assam
C.
Kapili
3.
Tripura
D.
Ranganadi
4.
Nagaland
Q38.
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Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List – I
(Tropical Cyclone)
List - II
(Country)
A.
Hurricanes
1.
China
B.
Willy Willy
2.
Philippines
C.
Baguio
3.
Australia
D.
Typhoons
4.
USA
Q39.
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Which statement is NOT correct with reference to Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
Q40.
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Where is the Coriolis Effect the largest ?
Q41.
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Which of the following pairs of Himalayan Passes and the Ranges in which they are located is/are correctly matched?
1. Zoji La - Great Himalayas
2. Banihal Pass - Pir Panjal Range
3. Photu La - Ladakh Range
4. Khardung La - Karakoram Range
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q42.
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In which among the following states in India, the Sun rays are never perpendicular?
1. Bihar
2. Chhattisgarh
3. Manipur
4. Rajasthan
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q43.
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Which one among the following local winds is NOT related to Mediterranean Sea?
Q44.
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Which one of the following is an example of both an igneous as well as a metamorphic rock?
Q45.
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Which one among the following is a landlocked water body?
Q46.
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Which one of the following is found in appreciable amount in Laterite soil in India?
Q47.
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Any land that is left fallow for more than five years is termed as
Q48.
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Which one among the following statements with reference to Benguela current is NOT correct?
General Science
General Science
Q1.
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Which one among the following processes is NOT part of chemical weathering?
Q2.
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Which one among the following is commonly used as an ‘anti-skinning agent’ in paints ?
Q3.
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Which of the following anions has a valency of -3 ?
Q4.
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At which temperature does liquid water show maximum density?
Q5.
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Which one of the following is correct?
Q6.
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The chemical reaction : 2AgCl (s) → 2Ag (s) + Cl~2~ (g) takes place
Q7.
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Which one among the following fertilizers is a source of nitrogen?
Q8.
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Which one among the following is an example of chemical change?
Q9.
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Which one among the following elements is polyatomic ?
Q10.
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Which one among the following has valency of 3?
Q11.
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Which one among the following is an example of oxidation reaction?
Q12.
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What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy the first shell of an atom?
Q13.
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For Aluminium (Al) (atomic number: 13, mass number: 27), which one among the following statements is NOT correct?
Q14.
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The elemental composition of diamond is
Q15.
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The mass of 0:5 mole of N~2~ gas is
Q16.
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The intermixing of particles of two different types of matter on their own is called
Q17.
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Which one among the following is correct for a person suffering from myopia?
Q18.
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Which one among the following diagrams may correctly represent the motion of a skydiver during a jump ?
Q19.
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A point object is placed at the centre of curvature of a spherical concave mirror. Which one among the fol- lowing would be the correct location of image formed?
Q20.
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A car weighs 1000 kg. It is moving with a uniform velocity of 72 km/h towards a straight road. The driver suddenly presses the brakes. The car stops in 0.2 s. The retarding force applied on the car to stop it is
Q21.
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Two resistances of 5.0 Ω and 7.0 Ω are connected in series and the combination is connected in parallel with a resistance of 36.0 Ω. The equivalent resistance of the combination of three resistors is
Q22.
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Which of the following statements give characteristics of contact forces?
1. It appears between an object when it is in contact with some other object
2. It satisfies the third law of motion
3. It may appear between a pair of solid and fluid
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q23.
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Shown in the figure are two hollow cubes C~1~ and C~2~ of negligible mass partially filled (depicted by darkened area) with liquids of densities ρ~1~ and ρ~2~, respectively, floating in water (density ρ~w~). The relationship between ρ~1~, ρ~2~ and ρ~w~ is 


Q24.
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Which one among the following is the correct focal length of a combination of lenses of power 2.5 D and -2.0 D?
Q25.
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There is a ball of mass 320 g. It has 625 J potential energy when released freely from a height. The speed with which it will hit the ground is
Q26.
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Which one of the following statements best defines the concept of heat?
Q27.
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Starting from rest a vehicle accelerates at the rate of 2 m/s^(2) towards east for 10 s. It then stops suddenly. It then accelerates again at a rate of 4√2 m/s^(2) for next 10 s towards south and then again comes to rest. The net displacement of the vehicle from the starting point is
Q28.
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Which one of the following sketches correctly describes a lever of second class?
Q29.
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An astronaut whose weight on the Earth is 600 N experiences weightless- ness on International Space Station orbiting around the Earth. It means that
Q30.
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An incandescent electric bulb converts 20% of its power consumption into light, and the remaining power is dissipated as heat. The bulb's filament has a resistance of 200 Ω and 2 A current flows through it. If the bulb remains ON for 10 h and the rate of electricity charge is Rs. 5/unit, then which among the following is the correct amount for the money spent on producing light?
Q31.
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Lightning is due to
Q32.
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In which one among the following situations, the bulb ⊗ would glow the most ? (Consider all batteries are the same)
Q33.
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Which one among the. following figures correctly represents the ray diagram ? (Consider the lens to be thin)
Q34.
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A vehicle starts moving along a straight line path from rest. In first t seconds it moves with an acceleration of 2 m/s^(2) and then in next 10 seconds it moves with an acceleration of 5 m/s^(2). The total distance travelled by the vehicle is 550 m. The value of time t is
Q35.
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Given below are the four cases in which certain heat transfer is taking place:
1. Ice is melting in a glass full of water
2. Water is boiling in an open container
3. A metal rod is heated in a furnace
4. A cup of coffee is allowed to cool on a table
In which of the above cases, the Newton's Law of Cooling is applicable ?
Q36.
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For an electric circuit given below, the correct combination of voltage (V) and current (I) is


Q37.
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A block of mass 20 kg slides on a rough horizontal plane surface. Let the speed of the block at a particular instant is 10 m/s. It comes to rest after travelling a distance of 20 m. Which one of the following could be the magnitude of the frictional force?
Q38.
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The AC mains domestic supply current in India changes direction in every
Q39.
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A pumpkin weighs 7.5 N. On sub- merging it completely in water, $\frac{3}{4}$L of water gets displaced. The acceleration due to gravity at the place where the pumpkin was weighed is 10 m/s^(2). Which one of the following is the correct value of the density of the pumpkin?
Q40.
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The masses of two planets are in the ratio of 1:7. The ratio between their diameters is 2: 1. The ratio of forces which they exert on each other is
Q41.
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The figure given below shows the direction of the two forces P and Q acting on a skydiver :
Which one among the following statements is correct about the two forces?
Which one among the following statements is correct about the two forces?
Q42.
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Which one of the following statements about lysosomes is NOT correct ?
Q43.
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In which one among the following the vegetative propagation takes place through Eye Buds ?
Q44.
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Which one among the following combinations most appropriately represent the components of balanced diet?
Q45.
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Which one among the following is the source of energy in cells ?
Q46.
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Organisms of which of the following phylum are called sponges?
Q47.
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Which one among the following tissues help to connect two bones ?
Q48.
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Which one among the following diseases is caused due to deficiency of Vitamin D in humans?
Q49.
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Which one among the following separation techniques is used for blood tests in diagnostic laboratories ?
Q50.
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Which of the following two cell organelles have their own genetic material ?
Q51.
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Which part of nephron of the human kidney is responsible for filtration of blood for excretion?
Q52.
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In which part or organ of the human body is cartilage NOT found?