← All Tests

NDA General Ability 4 September 2022

DEFENCE 2022 Previous Year

3 hDuration

600Total Marks

150Questions

3Sections

Instructions

General instructions for this test:

Duration: 3 h. The timer starts as soon as you begin and cannot be paused.
Total questions: 150 across 3 section(s); maximum marks: 600.
You are allowed 1 attempt(s) at this test.
Use the question palette on the right to navigate. Answered questions are highlighted in green; questions marked for review are highlighted in yellow.
Each question's marking scheme (correct / wrong) is shown on the question card. Unanswered questions receive zero marks.
Switching tabs, exiting full-screen, or attempting to copy text is monitored. Repeated tab-switching may auto-submit the test.
Your answers autosave as you navigate. Click Submit Test when you are done. The test will be auto-submitted when the timer expires.

No exam-specific instructions were provided for this paper.

Paper Structure

English

Q1. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d). Early bird

Q2. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d). Be in the pink

Q3. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d). A sea change

Q4. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d). A queer fish

Q5. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d). Eat like a bird

Q6. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d). A bird in the hand (a) / is better than (b) / two in the bush. (c) / No error (d)

Q7. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d). A pearl of wisdom

Q8. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d). Be in the running

Q9. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c), and (d). Be in the red

Q10. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d). Lock horns

Q11. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d). Be in seventh heaven

Q12. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. The achievements of the team have been __monumental__ in the last ten years.

Q13. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. __Plenitude__ is one major cause for environmental degradation.

Q14. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Q15. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. The novel depicts the __hapless__ status of certain sections of society.

Q16. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Q17. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. The land appears to be __parched.__

Q18. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Q19. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Q20. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Q21. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. The scholar quoted __irrefutable__ evidence for her thesis.

Q22. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. there is in all instance a single, (P) / surrender to the idea that (Q) / authoritative truth to be discovered and defended (R) / many people today are willing to (S)

Q23. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. for India’s future (P) / mathematics and mathematical thinking (Q) / will be very important (R) / it is recognized that (S)

Q24. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. for which she fought till the end (P) / as a champion of women’s rights, (Q) / Pandita Ramabai was truly remarkable (R) / as a pioneer in women’s education and (S)

Q25. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. for yourself the implications of death, (P) / if you do not reflect and understand (Q) / from one preacher to another (R) / you will go endlessly (S)

Q26. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. and should shift the way (P) / are certainly very important, (Q) / we think about politics (R) / the issues raised by feminists and multiculturalists (S)

Q27. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. to be successful (P) / what it is (Q) / as a human being (R) / have you ever considered (S)

Q28. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. a much wider array of perspectives (P) / the editors of the present work (Q) / the history of social reforms from (R) / argue the need to understand (S)

Q29. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. by which the genetic material of a plant is altered, (P) / pests and enhance its nutritional value (Q) / perhaps to make it more resistant to (R) / genetic modification (GM) is the science (S)

Q30. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. a way of understanding the world, (P) / a language represents (Q) / and relating them to one another (R) / differentiating between things (S)

Q31. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. in agriculture and veterinary sciences through (P) / will be enhanced sharply (Q) / programmes integrated with general education (R) / the preparation of professionals (S)

Q32. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. Sheela appeared to be __vexed.__

Q33. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Q34. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Q35. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Q36. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Q37. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Q38. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Q39. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Q40. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Q41. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Q42. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d). This monument happens (a) / to be one of the old monument (b) / in the city. (c) / No error (d)

Q43. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d). Rahim was one of that (a) / selected for (b) / the award. (c) No error (d)

Q44. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d). Sujini has met her old friend (a) / Guru before she shifted (b) / to Hyderabad two years ago. (c) / No error (d)

Q45. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d). If you have asked me (a) / for the truth I would have told (b) / you at that time. (c) / No error (d)

Q46. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d). The opportunity to attain foundational literacy (a) / and pursue a honest livelihood (b) / must be viewed as the basic right of every citizen. (c) / No error (d)

Q47. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d). Amit told to Divya (a) / that he would come (b) / with a reward for her. (c)/ No error (d)

Q48. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d). Our greatest glory is (a) / not in never falling but in (b) / raising every time we fall. (c) / No error (d)

Q49. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d). Though there is progress (a) / for different directions, (b) / why is there no brotherhood? (c) / No error (d)

Q50. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d). If I will be the millionaire (a) / I would eradicate (b) / poverty from the country. (c) / No error (d)

General Studies

Q1. mcq single +4 / 1.33

India signed a deal with which one of the following countries to supply MH-60R helicopters to the Indian Navy?

Q2. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which among the following has initiated a nationwide flagship campaign ‘Puneet Sagar Abhiyan’ to clean seashores/ ‘beaches and other water bodies of plastic and other waste materials?

Q3. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Who among the following is the author of the book, Tomb of Sand?

Q4. mcq single +4 / 1.33

In January 2020, the administration of which of the following Union Territories has been merged together?

Q5. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Railway zone) List-II (Headquarters) A. East Central 1. Gorakhpur B. North Eastern 2. Jaipur C. Northeast Frontier 3. Hajipur D. North Western 4. Maligaon

Q6. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which of the following Indian Naval Ships were decommissioned in June 2022?

Q7. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. India has one of the longest navigable inland water networks in the world. 2. Inland waterways presently help in transporting about 25 percent of the total cargo movement. 3. About 111 inland waterways have been declared as National Waterways under the National Waterways Act, 2016. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q8. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which of the following statements about ‘SHRESHTA’ scheme, launched recently by the Government of India, is/are correct? 1. This scheme is for residential education for students in high school in targeted areas. 2. It provides for high quality education for meritorious but poor Scheduled Caste students. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q9. mcq single +4 / 1.33

With reference to India’s defence, the terms ‘Surat’ and ‘Udaygiri’ refer to

Q10. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Who among the following invented the flying shuttle?

Q11. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which among the following was the host country of the United Nations World Environment Day, 2022?

Q12. mcq single +4 / 1.33

eSanjeevani, the free telemedicine service of the Government of India, was recently integrated with the

Q13. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Rafael Nadal defeated whom among the following to win the French Open Tennis Tournament, 2022?

Q14. mcq single +4 / 1.33

The activities or services focussed on creation, rearrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas are referred to as

Q15. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Consider the following events : 1. Establishment of the Planning Commission 2. Formation of the National Development Council (NDC) 3. Approval of the First Five-Year Plan by the NDC 4. Constitution of the National Planning Committee Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above events?

Q16. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Consider the following statements about ‘Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik (UDAN)’ scheme : 1. It is an innovative scheme to develop the regional aviation market. 2. It creates affordability yet economically viable and profitable flight on regional routes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q17. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following is not a power of Panchayats under Article 243G?

Q18. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Who among the following introduced the ‘Objective Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly on 13^(th) December, 1946?

Q19. mcq single +4 / 1.33

In a recent judgement, the Supreme Court of India directed that every protected forest, national park and wildlife sanctuary across the country should have a mandatory eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) of a minimum of

Q20. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Consider the following historical events : 1. Gandhi-Irwin Pact 2. Second Round Table Conference 3. Peasant Movement in Bardoli 4. Peasant Movement in Kheda Which one of the following is the correct chronological order (starting from the earliest) of the above events?

Q21. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Who among the following has described the medieval Indian postal system as of two kinds—the horse-post called ‘Uluq’ and the foot-post called ‘Dawa’?

Q22. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following battles could be seen as laying the formal foundation of the British Raj in India?

Q23. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Who among the following laid the foundation of the Vijayanagara Empire?

Q24. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following was composed by Harishena?

Q25. mcq single +4 / 1.33

At which among the following Harappan sites are fire altars found?

Q26. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following rivers in India was not crossed by Alexander and his army?

Q27. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Dutch East India Company was formed after the formation of the British East India Company. 2. Vasco da Gama reached Calicut in 1498. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q28. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Where in South India did the British East India Company construct a trading post in 1639?

Q29. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following areas was acquired by the British under the Treaty of Deogaon, 1803?

Q30. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Who among the following initiated the Bhoodan Movement?

Q31. mcq single +4 / 1.33

The book, Kalila wa Dimna is an Arabic translation of the

Q32. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which of the following statements about the Unionist Party is/are correct? 1. It was a political party representing the interests of landholders in Punjab. 2. It was opposed to the idea of the partition of India as India and Pakistan. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q33. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Who among the following is the author of the Hastyayurveda ?

Q34. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Mahamatta) List-II (Function) A. Anta-mahamatta 1. Women’s welfare B. Ithijhakha-mahamatta 2. Spread of Dhamma C. Dhamma-mahamatta 3. Associated with city D. Nagalaviyohalaka-ahamatta 4. In-charge of frontier areas

Q35. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Where did Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose announce the formation of the Government of Free India in 1943?

Q36. mcq single +4 / 1.33

The Prime Meridian does not pass through which one of the following African countries?

Q37. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Consider the following statements : 1. The Sharavati river creates Jog Falls. 2. The Brahmani river is formed by the confluence of the Kosi and Sankh rivers. 3. The Tamraparni is a river of Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu. How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Q38. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Earth’s crust is brittle in nature. 2. The mean thickness of the oceanic crust is 15 km, whereas that of the continental crust is around 30 km. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q39. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following ‘discontinuities’ separates the Earth’s crust from the mantle?

Q40. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following statements about metamorphic rocks is not correct?

Q41. mcq single +4 / 1.33

What will happen if you are flying east across the International Date Line?

Q42. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Piecing together the puzzle of geologic time to create and analyze historical maps of the Earth is known as

Q43. mcq single +4 / 1.33

The formation of ‘tors’ on small rocky hills is associated with which among the following?

Q44. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following cities of the world would represent the greatest linear velocity of rotation of the Earth?

Q45. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Consider the following statements on computation of density : 1. Physiological density can be computed by dividing the total population by the net cultivable area. 2. Agricultural density can be computed by dividing the total agricultural population by the net cultivable area. 3. Population density can be computed by dividing the total population by the total area. How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Q46. mcq single +4 / 1.33

In India, a cultivable land which is left uncultivated for more than a year but less than five years is labelled as

Q47. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Consider the following statements : 1. Maharashtra State has the maximum share of national highways (length in kilometres). 2. The nature of terrain and the level of economic development is one of the reasons for the maximum share of national highways in Maharashtra. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q48. mcq single +4 / 1.33

The major portion of the Great Artesian Basin in Australia is located in

Q49. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Consider the following statements about anticyclones : 1. Anticyclones are high pressure systems. 2. Air in the centre of the system must be subsiding. 3. Anticyclones are characterized by converging winds. How many of the above statements is/are correct?

General Science

Q1. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Bronze is an alloy of

Q2. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following metals floats in cold water?

Q3. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following salts does not possess water of crystallization?

Q4. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Silver artifacts get tarnished in the air due to the formation of

Q5. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following solutions is not capable of conducting electricity?

Q6. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Vapours of sulphur escaping from a volcano often form a crust on the rocks. The process involved is an example of

Q7. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Bee sting leaves an acid which causes pain and irritation. The acid released is

Q8. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following is the correct reactivity series with water?

Q9. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Liquid vegetable oils are converted to solid margarine by the use of

Q10. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which of the following compounds undergoes/undergo thermal decomposition?

Q11. mcq single +4 / 1.33

C~4~H~8~ belongs to the homologous series of

Q12. mcq single +4 / 1.33

The number of structural isomers of pentane is

Q13. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Dry ice is used on a performing stage to produce mist in air. The process involved is an example of

Q14. mcq single +4 / 1.33

In which one of the following devices, the light energy is converted into the electrical energy?

Q15. mcq single +4 / 1.33

A DC generator works on the principle of

Q16. mcq single +4 / 1.33

A pressure cooker cooks food faster by

Q17. mcq single +4 / 1.33

The amplitude of sound waves is measured in the units of

Q18. mcq single +4 / 1.33

When the pitch of sound increases, which one of the following increases?

Q19. mcq single +4 / 1.33

The volume of a sealed packet is 1 liter and its mass is 800 g. The packet is first put inside the water with a density of 1 g cm^(-3) and then in another liquid B with a density of 1.5 g cm^(-3). Then which one of the following statements holds true?

Q20. mcq single +4 / 1.33

A simple pendulum having bob of mass m and length of string l has time period of T. If the mass of the bob is doubled and the length of the string is halved, then the time period of this pendulum will be

Q21. mcq single +4 / 1.33

The presence of magnetic field can be determined using which one of the following instruments?

Q22. mcq single +4 / 1.33

To help deep-sea divers breathe, they carry cylinders of oxygen mixed with

Q23. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following statements about speed and velocity is correct?

Q24. mcq single +4 / 1.33

The refractive index of crown glass is close to 3/2. If the speed of light in air is c, then the speed of light in the crown glass will be close to

Q25. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Human eye can see objects at different distances with contrasting illuminations. This is due to

Q26. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Two convex lenses have focal lengths of 50 cm and 25 cm, respectively. If these two lenses are placed in contact, then the net power of this combination will be equal to

Q27. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following statements regarding a current-carrying solenoid is not correct?

Q28. mcq single +4 / 1.33

SONAR is a device that is used to measure the distance of underwater objects by a ship. Which of the following types of waves does it use for this purpose?

Q29. mcq single +4 / 1.33

A bullet of mass 10 g is horizontally fired with velocity 300 m s^(-1) from a pistol of mass 1 kg. What is the recoil velocity of the pistol?

Q30. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following statements about the speed of sound waves is not correct?

Q31. mcq single +4 / 1.33

An electric bulb is connected to 220 V generator. The current drawn is 600 mA. What is the power of the bulb?

Q32. mcq single +4 / 1.33

A current of 0.6 A is drawn by an electric bulb for 10 minutes. Which one of the following is the amount of electric charge that flows through the circuit?

Q33. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following terms cannot represent electrical power in a circuit?

Q34. mcq single +4 / 1.33

An object is made of two equal parts by volume; one part has density ρ~0~, and the other part has density 2ρ~0~. What is the average density of the object?

Q35. mcq single +4 / 1.33

What is the nature of velocity-time graph for a car moving with uniform acceleration?

Q36. mcq single +4 / 1.33

A microphone converts

Q37. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following statements about earthquake waves is not correct?

Q38. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following wavelengths corresponds to the wavelength of X-rays?

Q39. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following metals is most commonly used for making filament of incandescent electric bulbs?

Q40. mcq single +4 / 1.33

The commercial unit of electrical energy is kilowatt-hour (kWh), which is equal to

Q41. mcq single +4 / 1.33

The digestive enzymes are present in

Q42. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following will be resulted when an animal cell is surrounded by a medium with lower concentration of water?

Q43. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following hormones increases the heartbeat in mammals?

Q44. mcq single +4 / 1.33

The digestion of fat in human intestine is performed by

Q45. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Which one of the following statements about animal cells and plant cells is correct?

Q46. mcq single +4 / 1.33

After fertilization, the fruit and the seed are produced by

Q47. mcq single +4 / 1.33

The breakdown of glucose in cytoplasm results in the formation of

Q48. mcq single +4 / 1.33

The protein-digesting enzyme secreted by the stomach wall in case of mammals is called

Q49. mcq single +4 / 1.33

Lymph is a tissue fluid present in intercellular spaces. It resembles to

Q50. mcq single +4 / 1.33

The part of the human ear that converts the pressure variations associated with audible sound waves to electrical signals is

Q51. mcq single +4 / 1.33

The transfer of electrical signals by nerve cells in human body is enabled by