AIPMT 2015 Cancelled Paper
MEDICAL 2015 Previous Year
3 hDuration
620Total Marks
155Questions
3Sections
Instructions
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Paper Structure
Chemistry
Chemistry
Q1.
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Which of the following processes does not involve oxidation of iron?
Q2.
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Magnetic moment 2.84 B.M. is given by (At. nos. Ni = 28, Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27)
Q3.
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Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the following pairs of elements have nearly same atomic radii? (Numbers in the parenthesis are atomic numbers)
Q4.
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The correct bond order in the following species is
Q5.
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Maximum bond angle at nitrogen is present in which of the following ?
Q6.
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Which of the following species contains equal number of $$\sigma $$- and $$\pi $$-bonds ?
Q7.
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Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural ?
Q8.
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Which of the following options represents the correct bond order ?
Q9.
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The K~sp~ of Ag~2~CrO~4~, AgCl, AgBr and Agl are respectively, 1.1 $$ \times $$ 10^($$-$$12), 1.8 $$ \times $$ 10^($$-$$10), 5.0 $$ \times $$ 10^($$-$$13), 8.3 $$ \times $$ 10^($$-$$17). Which one of the following salts will precipitate last if AgNO~3~ solution is added to the solution containing equal moles of NaCl, NaBr, Nal and Na~2~CrO~4~?
Q10.
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When initial concentration of a reactant is doubled in a reaction, its half-life period is not affected. The order of the reaction is
Q11.
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The activation energy of a reaction can be determined from the slope of which of the following graphs?
Q12.
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The reaction of C~6~H~5~CH $$=$$ CHCH~3~ with HBr produces
Q13.
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Which of them is not equal to zero for an ideal solution?
Q14.
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The boiling point of 0.2 mol kg^($$-$$1) solution of *X* in water is greater than equimolal solution of *Y* in water. Which one of the following statements is true in this case?
Q15.
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Which one of the following electrolytes has the same value of van't Hoff factor (i) as that of Al~2~(SO~4~)~3~ (if all are 100% ionised)?
Q16.
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A mixture of gases contains H~2~ and O~2~ gases in the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of the two gases in the mixture ?
Q17.
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If the value of equilibrium constant for a particular reaction is 1.6 $$ \times $$ 10^(12), then at equilibrium the system will contain
Q18.
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Which of the following statements is correct for a reversible process in a state of equilibrium?
Q19.
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The species Ar, K^(+) and Ca^(2+) contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their radii increase ?
Q20.
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Nitrogen dioxide and sulphur dioxide have some properties in common . Which property is shown by one of these compounds , but not by the other?
Q21.
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Which of these statements about [Co(CN)~6~]^(3$$-$$) is true?
Q22.
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Cobalt (III) chloride forms several octahedral complexes with ammonia. Which of the following will not give test for chloride ions with silver nitrate at 25^(o)C?
Q23.
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The enolic form of ethyl accetoacetate as shown below has
Q24.
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Which of the following is the most correct electron displacement for a nucleophilic reaction to take place?
Q25.
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In Duma's method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.25 g of an organic compound gave 40 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 725 mm pressure. If the aqueous tension at 300 K is 25 mm, the percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
Q26.
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In which of the following compounds, the C$$-$$Cl bond ionisation shall give most stable carbonium ion?
Q27.
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Given :
Which of the given compounds can exhibit tautomerism?
Which of the given compounds can exhibit tautomerism?
Q28.
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The total number of $$\pi $$-bond electrons in the following structure is
Q29.
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Consider the following compounds :
Hyperconjunction occurs in
Hyperconjunction occurs in
Q30.
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Treatment of cyclopentanone
with methyl lithium gives which of the following species ?
with methyl lithium gives which of the following species ?
Q31.
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An organic compound 'X' having molecular formula C~5~H~10~O yields phenylhydrazone and gives negative response to the iodoform test and Tollens' test. It produces n-pentane on reduction. 'X' could be
Q32.
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The reaction,
is called
is called
Q33.
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A single compound of the structure,
is obtainable from ozonolysis of which of the following cyclic compounds?
is obtainable from ozonolysis of which of the following cyclic compounds?
Q34.
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Given :
The enthalpy of hydrogenation of these compounds will be in the order as
The enthalpy of hydrogenation of these compounds will be in the order as
Q35.
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A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels like hydrogen and methane, directly into electrical energy is known as
Q36.
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The electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in strongly acidic medium produces
Q37.
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The angular momentum of electron in 'd' orbital is equal to
Q38.
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The number of d-electrons in Fe^(2+) (Z = 26) is not equal to the number of electrons in which one of the following ?
Physics
Physics
Q1.
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In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is placed 1 m away. A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used. What will be the width of each slit for obtaining ten maxima of double slit within the central maxima of single slit pattern ?
Q2.
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For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength '$$\lambda $$' , diffraction is produced by a single slit whose width 'a' is of the order of the wavelength of the light. If 'D' is the distance of the screen from the slit, the wifth of the central maxima will be
Q3.
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A rod of weight W is supported by two parallel knife edges A and B and is in equilibrium in a horizontal position. The knives are at a distance d from each other. The centre of mass of the rod is at distance x from A. The normal reaction on A is
Q4.
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Three identical spherical shells, each of mass m and radius r are placed as shown in figure. Consider an axis XX' which is touching to two shells and passing through diameter of third shell. Moment of inertia of the system consisting of these three spherical shells about XX' axis is
Q5.
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A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth horizontal plane with velocity v~0~ at a radius R~0~. The mass is attached to a string which passes through a smooth hole in the plane as shown. the tension in the string is increased gradually and finally m moves in a circle of radius $${{{R_0}} \over 2}$$.
The final value of the kinetic energy is
Q6.
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If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are chosen as the fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula of surface tension will be
Q7.
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The ratio of the specific heats $${{{C_p}} \over {{C_v}}} = \gamma $$ in terms of degrees of freedom (n) is given by
Q8.
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Figure below shows two paths that may be taken by a gas to go from a state A to a state C.
In process AB, 400 J of heat is added to the system and in process BC, 100 J of heat is added to the system. The heat absorbed by the system in the process AC will be
In process AB, 400 J of heat is added to the system and in process BC, 100 J of heat is added to the system. The heat absorbed by the system in the process AC will be
Q9.
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A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is
Q10.
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One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transition from A to B along a path AB as shown in the figure.
The change in internal energy of the gas during the transition is
The change in internal energy of the gas during the transition is
Q11.
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The two ends of a metal rod are maintained at temperatures 100^(o)C and 110^(o)C. The rate of heat flow in the rod is found to be 4.0 J/s. If the ends are maintained at temperatures 200^(o)C and 210^(o)C, the rate of heat flow will be
Q12.
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On observing light from three different starts P, Q and R, it was found that intensity of violet colour is maximum in the spectrum of P, the intensity of green colour is maximum in the spectrum of R and the intensity of red colour is maximum in the spectrum of Q. If T~P~, T~Q~ and T~R~ are the respective absolute temperatures of P, Q and R, then it can be conclued from the above observations that
Q13.
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A wind with speed 40 m/s blows parallel to the roof of a house. The area of the roof is 250 m^(2). Assuming that the pressure inside the house is atmospheric pressure, the force exerted by the wind on the roof and the direction of the force will be $$({\rho _{air}} = 1.2kg/{m^3})$$
Q14.
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The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. The compressiblity of water is 45.4 $$ \times $$ 10^($$-$$11) Pa^($$-$$1) and density of water is 10^(3) kg/m^(3). What fractional compression of water will be obtained at the bottom of the ocean?
Q15.
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The electric field in a certain region is acting radially outward and is given by E = Ar. A charge contained in a sphere of radius 'a' centred at the origin of the field, will be given by
Q16.
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Kepler's third law states that square of period of revoluation (T) of a planet around the sun, is proportional to third power of average distance r between sun and planet i.e. T^(2) = Kr^(3) here K is constant. If the masses of sun and planet are M and m respectively then as per Newton's law of gravitation force of attraction between them is F = $${{GMm} \over {{r^2}}}$$, here G is gravitational constant. The relation between G and K is described as
Q17.
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A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a cell of emf V and then disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dieletric constant K, which can just fill the air gap of the capacitor, is now inserted in it . Which of the following is incorrect ?
Q18.
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Two identical thin plano-convex glass lenses (refractive index 1.5) each having radius of curvature of 20 cm are placed with their convex surfaces in contact at the centre. The intervening space is filled with oil of refractive index 1.7. The focal length of the combination is
Q19.
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The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot (A/2). The angle of minimum deviation is
Q20.
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A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its velocities at distances x~1~ and x~2~ from the mean position are V~1~ and V~2~ respectively. Its time period is
Q21.
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When two displacements represented by y~1~ = a sin$${\left( {\omega t} \right)}$$ and y~2~ = b cos$${\left( {\omega t} \right)}$$ aresuperimposed the motion is
Q22.
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Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates ?
Q23.
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If in a p-n junction, a square input signal of 10 V is applied, as shown,
then the output across R~L~ will be
then the output across R~L~ will be
Q24.
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An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius r makes n rotations per second. The magnetic field produced at the centre has magnitude
Q25.
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A conducting square frame of side 'a' and a long straight wire carrying current $$I$$ are located in the same plane as shown in the figure. The frame moves to the right with a constant velocity 'V'. The emf induced in the frame will be proportional to
Q26.
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A wire carrying current $$I$$ has the shape shown in adjoining figure.
Linear parts of the wire are very long and parallel to X-axis while semicircular protion of radius R is lying in Y-Z plane. Magtnetic field at pont $$O$$ is
Linear parts of the wire are very long and parallel to X-axis while semicircular protion of radius R is lying in Y-Z plane. Magtnetic field at pont $$O$$ is
Q27.
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A certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength, $$\lambda .$$ The stopping potential for photo-electric current for this light is 3V~0~. If the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 2 $$\lambda $$, the stopping potential is V~0~. The threshold wavelength for this surface for photo-electric effect is
Q28.
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Which of the following figures represent the variation of particle momentum and the associated de-Broglie wavelength?
Q29.
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A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according to $$v\left( x \right) = \beta {x^{ - 2n}}$$, where $$\beta $$ and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of the particle as a function of x, is given by
Q30.
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Consider 3^(rd) orbit of He^(+) (Helium), using non-relativistic approach, the speed of electron in this orbit will be [given K = 9 $$ \times $$ 10^(9) constant, Z = 2 and h (Planck's Constant) = 6.6 $$ \times $$ 10^($$-$$34) J s]
Q31.
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A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed of 10 km h^($$-$$1) and a ship B 100 km South of A, is moving Northwards with a speed of 10 km h^($$-$$1). The time after which the distance between them becomes shortest, is
Q32.
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Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M and radii R and 2R are released in free space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12R. If they attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body before collision is :
Q33.
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Two particles of masses m~1~, m~2~ move with initial velocities u~1~ and u~2~. On collision, one of the particles get excited to higher level, after absorbing energy $$\varepsilon $$. If final velocities of particles be v~1~ and v~2~ then we must have :
Q34.
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Three blocks A, B and C, of masses 4 kg, 2 kg and 1 kg respectively, are in contact on a frictionless surface, as shown. If a force of 14 N is applied on the 4 kg block, then the contact force between A and B is
Q35.
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A block A of mass m~1~ rests on a horizontal table. A light string connected to it passes over a frictionless pully at the edge of table and from its other end another block B of mass m~2~ is suspended. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the table is $$\mu $$~k~. When the block A is sliding on the table, the tension in the string is
Q36.
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A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that delivers a constant power k watts. If the particle starts from rest the force on the particle at time t is
Q37.
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Two similar springs P and Q have spring constants K~P~ and K~Q~, such that K~P~ > K~Q~. They are stretched first by the same amount (case a), then by the same force (case b). The work done by the springs W~P~ and W~Q~ are related as, in case (a) and case (b) respectively
Q38.
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A block of mass 10 kg, moving in x direction with a constant speed of 10 m s^($$-$$1), is subjected to a retarding force F = 0.1x J/m during its travel from x = 20 m to 30 m. Its final KE will be
Q39.
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A, B and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5 R and 3R respectively as shown in the figure. When some potential difference is applied between X and Y, the voltmeter readings are V~A~, V~B~ and V~C~ respectively, Then
Q40.
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A potentiometer wire has length 4 m and resistance 8 $$\Omega $$. The resistance that must be connected in series with the wire and an accumulator of e.m.f. 2 V, so as to get a potential gradient 1 mV per cm on the wire is
Q41.
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Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross section a constant potential difference is applied. The quantity which remains constant along the conductor is
Q42.
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A radiation of energy 'E' falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the surface is (C = Velocity of light)
Q43.
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A resistance 'R' draws power 'P' when connected to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed in series with the resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes 'Z'. the power drawn will be
Biology
Biology
Q1.
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The guts of cow and buffalo possess
Q2.
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Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in a biotic community is known as :
Q3.
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Most animals are tree dwellers in a:
Q4.
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Secondary Succession takes place on/in :
Q5.
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The mass of living material at a trophic level at a particular time is called :
Q6.
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In an ecosystem the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is termed as :
Q7.
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A man with blood group ‘A’ marries a woman
with blood group ‘B’. What are all the possible
blood groups of their offsprings?
Q8.
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How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea
plants were studied by Mendel in his
experiments?
Q9.
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Alleles are
Q10.
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The movement of a gene from one linkage group
to another is called
Q11.
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An abnormal human baby with ‘XXX’ sex
chromosomes was born due to
Q12.
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Multiple alleles are present
Q13.
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The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined by :
Q14.
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Which of the following animals is not viviparous?
Q15.
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Which of the following endoparasites of humans does show viviparity?
Q16.
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Which of the following represents the correct combination without any exception?
Q17.
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Which of the following characteristics is mainly responsible for diversification of insects on land?
Q18.
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In which of the following, gametophyte is not independent free living?
Q19.
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Which one of the following statements is wrong?
Q20.
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Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements.
A. Mosses and lichens are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock.
B. *Selaginella* is a homosporous pteridophyte
C. Coralloid roots in *Cycas* have VAM.
D. Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic.
E. In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on sporophyte.
Q21.
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Male gametes are flagellated in
Q22.
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When you hold your breath, which of the following gas changes in blood would first lead to the urge to breathe?
Q23.
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Which body of the Government of India regulates GM research and safety of introducing GM organisms for public services ?
Q24.
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In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as pro - toxin is converted into active toxin due to :
Q25.
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The crops engineered for glyphosate are resistant/ tolerant to :
Q26.
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A gymnast is able to balance his body upside down even in the total darkness because of
Q27.
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Which of the following regions of the brain is incorrectly paired with its function?
Q28.
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A major characteristic of the monocot root is the presence of :
Q29.
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Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because
Q30.
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Select the correct matching in the following pairs :
Q31.
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The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are :
Q32.
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The structures that are formed by stacking of organized flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts are
Q33.
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Nuclear envelope is a derivative of :
Q34.
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Which one of the following is not an inclusion body found in prokaryotes?
Q35.
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DNA is not present in :
Q36.
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Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is
Q37.
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In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine, The percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are
Q38.
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The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon
Q39.
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Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine
Column I
Column II
A. Tubeculosis
(i) Harmless virus
B. Whooping cough
(ii) Inactivated toxin
C. Diphtheria
(iii) Killed bacteria
D. Polio
(iv) Harmless bacteria
Q40.
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HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying
Q41.
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The following graph depicts changes in two populations (A and B) of herbivores in a grassy field. A possible reason for these
changes is that:
Q42.
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Which one of the following is correct?
Q43.
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Erythropoiesis starts in
Q44.
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Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum during
Q45.
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Select the correct option.
Column $${\rm I}$$
Column $${\rm I}$$$${\rm I}$$
A.
Synapsis aligns homologous
(i)
Anaphase $${\rm I}$$$${\rm I}$$
B.
Synthesis of RNA and protein
(ii)
Zygotene
C.
Action of enzymes recombinase
(iii)
G~2~-phase
D.
Centromeres do not separate
but chromatids move towards
opposite poles
(iv)
Anaphase $${\rm I}$$
(v)
Pachytene
Q46.
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A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the same species, has
Q47.
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Hysterectomy is surgical removal of
Q48.
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Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?
Q49.
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Capacitation refers to changes in the
Q50.
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Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is normally diploid?
Q51.
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A chemical signal that has both endocrine and neural roles is
Q52.
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In which of the following both pairs have correct combination ?
Q53.
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Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as:
Q54.
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What causes a green plant exposed to the light, on only one side, to bend towards the source of light as it grows?
Q55.
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Typical growth curve in plants is
Q56.
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Cytochromes are found in
Q57.
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Glenoid cavity articulates
Q58.
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Sliding filament theory can be best explained as
Q59.
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Which one of the following matches is correct?
Q60.
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True nucleus is absent in
Q61.
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Which of the following does not favour the formation of large quantities of dilute urine?
Q62.
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Removal of proximal convoluated tubule from the nephron will result in
Q63.
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Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?
Q64.
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Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted desease?
Q65.
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Which one of the following statements is not true?
Q66.
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Transmission tissue is characteristic feature of
Q67.
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Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy?
Q68.
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The hilum is a scar on the
Q69.
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Which of the following are the important floral rewards to the animal pollinators ?
Q70.
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Perigynous flowers are found in
Q71.
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Leaves become modified into spines in
Q72.
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Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of
Q73.
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is the floral formula of
is the floral formula of
Q74.
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Which one of the following statements is incorrect?