NEET 2016 Phase 1
MEDICAL 2016 Previous Year
3 hDuration
640Total Marks
160Questions
3Sections
Instructions
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Paper Structure
Chemistry
Chemistry
Q1.
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The electronic configuration of Eu (Atomic No. 63), Gd (Atomic No. 64) and Tb (Atomic No.65) are
Q2.
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Which one of the following statements is correct when SO~2~ is passed through acidified K~2~Cr~2~O~7~ solution?
Q3.
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Predict the correct order among the following :
Q4.
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Consider the molecules CH~4~, NH~3~ and H~2~O.
Which of the given statements is false?
Q5.
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MY and NY~3~, two nearly insoluble salts, have the same K~sp~ values of 6.2 $$ \times $$ 10^($$-$$13) at room temperature. Which statement would be true in regard to MY and NY~3~?
Q6.
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The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities?
Q7.
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The rate of first-order reaction is 0.04 mol L^($$-$$1) s^($$-$$1) at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol L^($$-$$1) s^($$-$$1) at 20 seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is
Q8.
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Which of the following biphenyls is optically active ?
Q9.
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Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25^(o)C. (Given, vapour pressure data at 25^(o)C, benzene = 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa)
Q10.
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At 100^(o)C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If K~b~ = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be
Q11.
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Consider the following liquid-vapour equilibrium.
Liquid $$\rightleftharpoons$$ Vapour
Which of the following relations is correct ?
Q12.
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In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it ?
Q13.
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The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is
Q14.
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Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules?
Q15.
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Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridisation and shape given in column II and mark the correct option
Column $${\rm I}$$
Column $${\rm I}$$$${\rm I}$$
(A)
XeF~6~
(i)
distorted octahedral
(B)
XeO~3~
(ii)
square planar
(C)
XeOF~4~
(iii)
pyramidal
(D)
XeF~4~
(iv)
square pyramidal
Q16.
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Among the following the correct order of acidity is
Q17.
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Which is the correct statement for the given acids?
Q18.
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When copper is heated with conc. HNO~3~ it produces
Q19.
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Which of the following has longest C$$-$$O bond length? (Free C$$-$$O bond length in CO is 1.128 $$\mathop A\limits^o $$.)
Q20.
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The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is
Q21.
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The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon, is
Q22.
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Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1-2-diol from the trans-isomer?
Q23.
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The reaction
can be classified as
can be classified as
Q24.
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Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc.H~2~SO~4~ and HNO~3~. If a large amount of KHSO~4~ is added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be
Q25.
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In the reaction
X and Y are
X and Y are
Q26.
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The pair of electrons in the given carbanion, CH~3~C $$ \equiv $$ C^($$-$$), is present in which of the following orbitals?
Q27.
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For the following reactions :
(A) CH~3~CH~2~CH~2~Br + KOH $$ \to $$
CH~3~CH $$=$$ CH~2~ + KBr + H~2~O
Which of the following statements is correct?
Which of the following statements is correct?
Q28.
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Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?
Q29.
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In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by
Q30.
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The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is
Q31.
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The pressure of H~2~ required to make the potential of H~2~-electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is
Q32.
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The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is
Q33.
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The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is
Q34.
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Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by
Physics
Physics
Q1.
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The intensity at the maximum in a Young's double slit experiment is $$I$$~0~. Distance between two slits is d = 5$$\lambda $$, where $$\lambda $$ is the wavelength of light used in the expreriment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10d ?
Q2.
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In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width $$a$$, the first minimum is observed at an angle 30^(o) when light of wavelength 5000 $$\mathop A\limits^ \circ $$ is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of
Q3.
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A disc and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first?
Q4.
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From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis, passing through the centre?
Q5.
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A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its plane and passes through its centre. It is subjected to a torque which produces a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s^($$-$$2). Its net acceleration in m s^($$-$$2) at the end of 2.0 s is approximately
Q6.
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A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4 A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 $$ \times \,{10^{ - 3}}$$ Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is
Q7.
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The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 2000 m s^($$-$$1) at 27^(o)C and 1.0 $$ \times $$ 10^(5) N m^($$-$$2) pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127^(o)C and 0.05 $$ \times $$ 10^(5)^() N m^($$-$$2), the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in m s^($$-$$1) is
Q8.
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A refrigerator works between 4^(o)C and 30^(o)C. It is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power required is (Take 1 cal = 4.2 Joules)
Q9.
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A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then
Q10.
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A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm is U~1~, at wavelength 500 nm is U~2~ and that at 1000 nm is U~3~. Wien's constant, b = 2.88 $$ \times $$ 10^(6) nm K. Which of the following is correct ?
Q11.
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A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of h [Latent heat of ice is $$3.4 \times {10^5}$$ J/kg and g = 10 N/Kg]
Q12.
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Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are $$\alpha $$~1~ and $$\alpha $$~2~. Lengths of brass and steel rods are $$l$$~1~ and $$l$$~2~ respectively. If ($$l$$~1~ $$-$$ $$l$$~2~) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following relations holds good?
Q13.
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Two non-mixing liquids of densities $$\rho $$ and n$$\rho $$ (n > 1) are put in a container. The height of each liquid is h. A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length $$\rho $$L ($$\rho $$ < 1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to
Q14.
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Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of lengths $$l$$, are initially at a distance d(d < < $$l$$) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other with a velocity v. Then v varies as a function of the distance x between the spheres, as
Q15.
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At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of g are $$-$$5.4 $$ \times $$ 10^(7) J kg^($$-$$1) and 6.0 m s^($$-$$2) respectively? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km.
Q16.
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The ratio of escape velocity at earth (v~e~) to the escape velocity at a planet (v~p~) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is
Q17.
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A capacitor of 2 $$\mu $$F is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is


Q18.
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Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with column 2. [Where m is the magnification produced by the mirror]
Column 1
Column 2
(A)
m = - 2
(p)
Convex mirror
(B)
m = -$${1 \over 2}$$
(q)
Concave mirror
(C)
m = +2
(r)
Real image
(D)
m = +$${1 \over 2}$$
(s)
Virtual image
Q19.
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The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45^(o). The angle of prism is 60^(o). If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are
Q20.
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A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance
Q21.
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To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is


Q22.
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Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is


Q23.
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A square loop ABCD carrying a current $$i$$, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY carrying a current $$I$$, the net force on the loop will be


Q24.
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A long straight wire of radius $$a$$ carries a steady current $$I$$. The current is uniformly distributed over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B', at radial distance $${a \over 2}$$ and 2$$a$$ respectively, from the axis of the wire is
Q25.
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An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is
Q26.
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When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength $$\lambda $$, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2 $$\lambda $$, the stopping potential is $${V \over 4}$$. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is
Q27.
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If the velocity of a particle is *v = At + Bt^(2),* where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it between 1 s and 2 s is
Q28.
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Given the value of Rydberg constant is 10^(7) m^($$-$$1), the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be
Q29.
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When an $$\alpha $$-particle of mass m moving with velocity v bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge Ze, its distance of closest approach from the nucleus depends on m as
Q30.
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A particle moves so that its position vector is given by $$\overrightarrow r = \cos \omega t\,\widehat x + \sin \,\omega t\,\widehat y,$$ where $$\omega $$ is a constant.
Which of the following is true?
Q31.
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If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle between these vectors is
Q32.
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A uniform rope of length L and mass m~1~ hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m~2~ is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength $$\lambda $$~1~ is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is $$\lambda $$~2~. The ratio $$\lambda $$~2~/$$\lambda $$~1~ is
Q33.
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An air column, closed at one end open at the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column resonating with the same tuning fork is
Q34.
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A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle $$\theta $$. The coefficient of friction between the tyres of the car and the road is $$\mu $$~s~. The maximum safe velocity on this road is
Q35.
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The magnetic susceptibility is negative for
Q36.
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What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop?
Q37.
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A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force $$\overrightarrow F = \left( {2t\widehat i + 3{t^2}\widehat J} \right)N,$$ where $${\widehat i}$$ and $${\widehat j}$$ are unit vectors along x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t ?
Q38.
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A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic enegy of the particle becomes equal to 8 $$ \times $$ 10^($$-$$4) J by the end of the second revoluation after the beginning of the motion ?
Q39.
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A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf's is
Q40.
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The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t is Q = at $$-$$ bt^(2), where $$a$$ and $$b$$ are positive constants. The total heat produced in R is
Q41.
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Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave ?
Q42.
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An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 $$\mu F$$ and a resistor 40 $$\Omega $$ are connected in series across a source of emf V = 10 sin 340t. The power loss in A.C. circuit is
Q43.
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A small signal voltage V(t) = V~0~ sin$$\omega $$t is applied across an ideal capacitor C
Biology
Biology
Q1.
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Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?
Q2.
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Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?
Q3.
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The term ecosystem was coined by :
Q4.
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Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem ?
Q5.
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Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia ?
Q6.
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Pick out the **correct** statements :
(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
(b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy.
(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.
(d) Sickle cell anaemia is an X โ linked recessive gene disorder.
Q7.
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A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell
is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is contaning more
number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would results in -
Q8.
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In a testcross involving F~1~ dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant-typeoffspring. This indicates
Q9.
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Match the terms in Column-I with their description in Column-II and choose the correct option :
Column-I
Column-II
(a) Dominance
(i) Many genes govern a single character
(b) Codominance
(ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses
itself
(c) Pleiotropy
(iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express
themselves fully
(d) Polygenic inheritance
(iv) A single gene influences many characters
Q10.
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A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F~1~ plants
were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of -
Q11.
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Which of the following features is not present
in *Periplaneta americana*?
Q12.
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Which type of tissue correctly matches with its locations ?
Q13.
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Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are
Q14.
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Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of
Q15.
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Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements using one of following options.
Q16.
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A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant?
Q17.
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In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in
Q18.
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Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?
Q19.
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Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum Arthropoda?
Q20.
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Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?
Q21.
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In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires
Q22.
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Select the correct statement
Q23.
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Name the chronic repiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking.
Q24.
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Reduction in pH of blood will
Q25.
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Asthma may be attributed to
Q26.
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Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is countrary to the rules of nomenclature?
Q27.
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Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita ?
Q28.
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The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by
Q29.
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Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of
Q30.
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Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called -
Q31.
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Microtubules are the constituents of
Q32.
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Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?
Q33.
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Mitochondria and chloroplast are-
(a) semi-autonomous organelles
(b) formed by division of pre existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesising
machinery
Which one of the following options is correct?
Q34.
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Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?
Q35.
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Which one of the following is the starter codon ?
Q36.
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A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as :
Q37.
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Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain -
Q38.
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In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormally and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to
Q39.
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Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations ?
Q40.
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Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states that -
Q41.
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When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero?
The logistic model is given as
dN/dt = rN(1-N/K)
Q42.
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It is much easier for a small animals to run uphill than for a large animal, because -
Q43.
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Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is
Q44.
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In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?
Q45.
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Spindle fibres attach on to
Q46.
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In meiosis crossing over is initiated at
Q47.
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Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?
Q48.
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Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of
Q49.
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Fertilisation in humans is practically feasible only if
Q50.
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Identify the correct statement on 'inhibin'.
Q51.
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Select the incorrect statement.
Q52.
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The amino acid tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of
Q53.
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Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?
Q54.
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Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction ?
Q55.
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Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India ?
Q56.
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The *Avena* curvature is used for bioassay of
Q57.
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Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as
Q58.
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Which one of the following statements is wrong?
Q59.
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Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates
and Slime moulds are included in the Kingdom
Q60.
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The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the
Q61.
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Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?
Q62.
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One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is
Q63.
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Analogous structures are a result of :
Q64.
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Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird ?
Q65.
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Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life -
(a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes
(b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen
Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct ?
Q66.
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Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive ?
Q67.
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In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect ?
Q68.
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Seed formation without fertilisation in flowering plants involves the process of
Q69.
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Which of the following statements is not correct?
Q70.
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Which one of the following statements is not true?
Q71.
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The coconut water from tender coconut represents
Q72.
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Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the
Q73.
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Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as
Q74.
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The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called
Q75.
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Cotyledon of maize grain is called
Q76.
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Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of
Q77.
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Which of the following is not a stem modification?
Q78.
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A typical fat molecule is made up of
Q79.
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Which one of the following statements is wrong?
Q80.
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Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?
Q81.
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Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids ?
Q82.
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Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease ?
Q83.
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The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from