neet-2019
NEET 2019
MEDICAL 2019 Previous Year
3 hDuration
632Total Marks
158Questions
3Sections
Instructions
General instructions for this test:
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- Total questions: 158 across 3 section(s); maximum marks: 632.
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Paper Structure
Chemistry
Chemistry
Q1.
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The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is :
Q2.
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The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral due to :
Q3.
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The number of sigma ($$\sigma $$) and pi ($$\pi $$) bonds in pent-2-en-4-yne is -
Q4.
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Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only $$\pi $$ bonds according to Molecular Orbital Theory?
Q5.
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pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)~2~ is 9. The solubility product (K~sp~) of Ca(OH)~2~ is :
Q6.
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Which will make basic buffer?
Q7.
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Conjugate base for Bronsted acids H~2~O and HF are :
Q8.
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If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the time (t) required for the completion of 99 % of the
reaction is given by :
Q9.
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For the chemical reaction
N~2~(g) + 3H~2~(g) ⇌ 2NH~3~(g)
the correct option is :
Q10.
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Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reaction?
**
(a) 2Cu^(+) $$ \to $$ Cu^(2+)
+ Cu^(0)
(b) 3MnO~4~^(2+) + 4H^(+) $$ \to $$ 2MnO~4~^(-) + MnO~2~ + 2H~2~O
(c) 2KMnO~4~ $$\buildrel \Delta \over
\longrightarrow $$ K~2~MnO~4~ + MnO~2~ + O~2~
(d) 2MnO~4~^(-) + 3Mn^(2+) + 2H~2~O $$ \to $$ 5MnO~2~ + 4$${H^ \oplus }$$
Select the correct** option from the following :
Q11.
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For an ideal solution, the **correct** option is :
Q12.
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The mixture that forms maximum boiling
azeotrope is :
Q13.
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The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through Haber’s
process is :
Q14.
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For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionization enthalpy is :
Q15.
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In which case change in entropy is negative?
Q16.
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Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a constant external pressure
of 2 bar. The work done by the gas is [Given that 1 L bar = 100 J]
Q17.
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Identify the incorrect statement related to PCl~5~ from the following :
Q18.
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Which is the correct thermal stability order for H~2~E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)?
Q19.
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Which of the following is **incorrect** statement?
Q20.
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Match the following :
(a) Pure nitrogen
(i) Chlorine
(b) Haber process
(ii) Sulphuric acid
(c) Contact process
(iii) Ammonia
(d) Deacon’s process
(iv) Sodium azide or Barium azide
Which of the following is the correct option?
Q21.
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Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with its structure in Column-II and assign the correct code :
Q22.
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Which of the following species is **not** stable?
Q23.
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What is the **correct** electronic configuration of the central atom in K~4~[Fe(CN)~6~] based on crystal field theory?
Q24.
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The compound that is most difficult to protonate is :
Q25.
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The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction, is :
Q26.
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Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, is :
Q27.
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The most suitable reagent for the following conversion, is :
Q28.
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An alkene “A” on reaction with O~3~ and Zn + H~2~O gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio. Addition
of HCl to alkene “A” gives “B” as the major product. The structure of product “B” is :
Q29.
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The non-essential amino acid among the following is :
Q30.
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For the cell reaction
2Fe^(3+)(aq) + 2I^(–)
(aq) $$ \to $$ 2Fe^(2+)(aq) + I~2~(aq)
$${E_{cell}^\Theta }$$ = 0.24 V at 298 K. The standard Gibbs energy ($$\Delta $$~r~G^(o)) of the cell reaction is :
[Given that Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol^(–1)]
Q31.
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For a cell involving one electron $$E_{cell}^\Theta $$ = 0.59 V at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell reaction is :
[Given that $${{2.303RT} \over F}$$ = 0.059 V at T = 298 K ]
Q32.
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The correct order of the basic strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is :
Q33.
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The major product of the following reaction is :
Q34.
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4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is :
Q35.
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Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom falls in visible region?
Physics
Physics
Q1.
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In a double slit experiment, when light of wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular width of the first minima formed on a screen placed 1m away, was found to be 0.2^(o). What will be the angular width of the first minima, ($$\mu $$~water~ = 4/3) if the entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water?
Q2.
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A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The torque required to stop after 2$$\pi $$ revolutions is :
Q3.
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Two particles A and B are moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii r~A~ and r~B~ with speed v~A~ and v~B~ respecitively. Their time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of angular speed of A to that of B will be :
Q4.
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A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop it?
Q5.
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A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m^(2) is kept. perpendicular to a magnetic filed 5 × 10^(–5) T. When the plane of the coil is rotated by 90^(o) around any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf induced in the coil will be :
Q6.
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In which of the following devices, the eddy current effect is **not** used?
Q7.
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In an experiment, the percentage of error occurred in the measurement of physical quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2 %, 3 %and 4 % respectively. Then the maximum percentage of error in the measurement X, where
X = $${{{A^2}{B^{1/2}}} \over {{C^{1/3}}{D^3}}}$$, will be :
Q8.
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Increase in tempertaure of a gas filled in a container would lead to :
Q9.
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In which of the following processes, heat is neither absorbed nor released by a system?
Q10.
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A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of unknown length have their increase in length independent of increase in tmperature. The length of aluminium rod is : ($$\alpha $$~Cu~ = 1.7 × 10^(–5) K^(–1) and
$$\alpha $$~Al~ = 2.2 × 10^(–5) K^(–1))
Q11.
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When a block of mass M is suspended by a long wire of length L, the length of the wire becomes (L + $$l$$). The elastic potential energy stored in the extended wire is :
Q12.
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A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm^(2) present near the bottom of a fully filled open tank of height 2 m. Taking g = 10 m/s^(2), the rate of flow of water through the open hole would be nearly :
Q13.
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The unit of thermal conductivity is :
Q14.
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A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown from a detergent solution having a surface tension of 2.5 $$ \times $$ 10^(–2) N/m. The pressure inside the bubble equals at a point Z~0~ below the free surface of water in a container. Taking g = 10 m/s^(2), density of water = 10^(3) kg/m^(3), the value of Z~0~ is :
Q15.
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Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q and – Q respectively, are placed at certain distance apart and force acting between them is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then force between the charges becomes :
Q16.
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A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from the centre :
Q17.
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Two parallel infinite line charges with linear charge densities +$$\lambda $$ C/m and -$$\lambda $$ C/m are placed at a distance of 2R in free space. What is the electric field mid-way between the two line charges?
Q18.
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The work done to raise a mass m from the surface of the earth to a height h, which is equal to the radius of the earth, is :
Q19.
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A body weight 200 N on the surface of earth. How much will it weight half way down to the centre of the earth?
Q20.
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A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 $$\mu $$F is being charged by a voltage source whose potential is changing at the rate of 3V/s. The conduction current through the connecting wires, and the displacement current through the plates of the capacitor, would be, respectively :
Q21.
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Pick the **wrong** answer in the context with rainbow.
Q22.
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In total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle for the pair of media in contact, what will be angle of refraction?
Q23.
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Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal length f each, are kept coaxially in contact with each other such that the focal length of the combination is F~1~. When the space between the two lenses is filled with glycerin (which has the same refractive index (m = 1.5) as that of glass) then the equivalent focal length is F~2~. The ratio F~1~ : F~2~ will be :
Q24.
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The displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by
y = A~0~ + A sin$$\omega $$t + B cos$$\omega $$t.
Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given by :
Q25.
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The radius of circle, the period of revolution, initial position and sense of revolution are indicated is the figure.
y- projection of the radius vector of rotating particle P is :
y- projection of the radius vector of rotating particle P is :
Q26.
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Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in one complete vibration is :
Q27.
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The **correct** Boolean operation represented by the circuit diagram drawn is :
Q28.
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For a p-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is **true**?
Q29.
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A cylinderical conductor of radius R is carrying a constant current. The plot of the magnitude of the magnetic field. B with the distane d from the centre of the conductor, is correctly represented by the figure :
Q30.
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Ionized hydrogen atoms and $$\alpha $$-particles with same momenta enters perpendicular to a constant magnetic field, B. The ratio of their radii of their paths r~H~ : r~$$\alpha $$~ will be :
Q31.
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An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie wavelength is (nearly) : (m~e~ = 9 $$ \times $$ 10^(–31) kg)
Q32.
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The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is flowing due east. If he is standing on the south bank and wishes to cross the river along the shortest path, the angle at which he should make his strokes w.r.t. north is given by :
Q33.
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$$\alpha $$-particale consists of :
Q34.
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The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies are, respectively.
Q35.
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When an object is shot from the bottom of a long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60^(o) with horizontal, it can travel a distance x~1~ along the plane. But when the inclination is decreased to 30^(o) and the same object is shot with the same velocity, it can travel x~2~ distance. Then x~1~ : x~2~ will be :
Q36.
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A particle moving with velocity
$$\overrightarrow V $$ is acted by three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR. The velocity of the particle will :
Q37.
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Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u collides with another body B of mass 2 m, at rest. The collision is head on and elastic in nature. After the collision the fraction of energy lost by the colliding body A is :
Q38.
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A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction between the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is 0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for the cylinder to keep the block stationary when the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its axis, will be : (g = 10 m/s^(2))
Q39.
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A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely to break when :
Q40.
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At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle of dip, $$\delta $$ = + 25^(o). At a point B on the earth's surface the angle of dip, $$\delta $$ = – 25^(o). We can interpret that :
Q41.
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A force F = 20 + 10y acts on a particle in y-direction where F is in newton and y in meter. Work done by this force to move the particle from y = 0 to y = 1 m is :
Q42.
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In the circuits shown below, the readings of voltmeters and the ammeters will be :
Q43.
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Which of the following acts as a circuit protection device?
Q44.
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Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in the figure with a DC source of emf E, and zero internal resistance.
The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation when two from section A and one from section B are glowing, will be :
Q45.
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Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength?
Biology
Biology
Q1.
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Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent?
Q2.
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Match the following organisms with the products they produce :
**
(a) Lactobacillus
(i) Cheese
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(ii) Curd
(c) Aspergillus nige
(iii) Citric Acid
(d) Acetobacter aceti
(iv) Bread
(v) Acetic Acid
Select the correct** option.
Q3.
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Which of the following can be used as a biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant disease?
Q4.
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Select the correct group of biocontrol agents.
Q5.
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Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria helpful in carrying out :
Q6.
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What triggers activation of protoxin to active Bt toxin of *Bacillus thuringiensis* in boll worm?
Q7.
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Which of the following is the most important cause for animals and plants being driven to extinction?
Q8.
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Which of the following ecological pyramids is generally inverted?
Q9.
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What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps?
Q10.
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Select the **incorrect** statement.
Q11.
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A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the
frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population?
Q12.
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In *Antirrhinum* (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with a white flower and in F~1~ generation, pink
flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed, the F~2~ generation showed white, red and pink
flowers. Choose the **incorrect** statement from the following :
Q13.
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What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development, gynaecomastia,
and is sterile?
Q14.
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The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of the distance
between genes was explained by :
Q15.
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Select the **correct** sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth :
Q16.
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The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In humans, these
cells are mainly present in :
Q17.
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Consider following features:
(a) Organ system level of organisation
(b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) True coelomates with segmentation of body
Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics
Q18.
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Match the following organisms with their respective characteristics:
(a)
Pila
(i)
Flame cells
(b)
Bombyx
(ii)
Comb plates
(c)
Pleurobrachia
(iii)
Radula
(d)
Taenia
(iv)
Malpighian
Select the correct option from the following :
Q19.
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From evolutionary point of view, retention of the female gametophyte with developing young embryo on the
parent sporophyte for some time, is first observed in :
Q20.
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Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL respectively. What will
be his Expiratory Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL?
Q21.
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Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin-dependent?
Q22.
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Which of the following statements in correct?
Q23.
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Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation?
Q24.
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Phloem in gymnosperms lacks :
Q25.
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Which of the statements given below is not true about formation of Annual Rings in trees?
Q26.
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What is the direction of movement of sugars in phloem?
Q27.
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Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is **incorrect**?
Q28.
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Which of the following pair of organelles does not contains DNA?
Q29.
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Which of the following statements is **not** correct?
Q30.
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The shorter and longer arms of a submetacentric chromosome are referred to as:
Q31.
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Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin by
recombinant DNA technology?
Q32.
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Purines found both in DNA and RNA are:
Q33.
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Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective produces :
**
(a) i gene
(i) $$\beta $$-galactosidase
(b) z gene
(ii) Permease
(c) a gene
(iii) Repressor
(d) y gene
(iv) Transacetylase
Select the correct** option.
Q34.
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Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to :
Q35.
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Under which of the following conditions will there be no change in the reading frame of following mRNA?
5' AACAGCGGUGCUAUU 3'
Q36.
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Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to
impart immunity to the newborn infants because it contains :
Q37.
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Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for
typhoid.
Q38.
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Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is **not** completely curable ?
Q39.
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Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft?
Q40.
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Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by :
Q41.
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The Earth summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called :
Q42.
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Match Column-I with Column –II.
**
Column - I
Column - II
(a) Saprophyte
(i) Symbiotic association
or fungi with plant roots
(b) Parasite
(ii) Decomposition of dead
organic materials
(c) Lichens
(iii)Living on living plants of animals
(d) Mycorrhiza
(iv) Symbiotic association of algae and fungi
Choose the correct** answer from the options given below :
Q43.
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What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end
of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL ?
Q44.
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Match the Column-I with Column-II :
Select the correct option.
Select the correct option.
Q45.
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Cells in G~0~ phase :
Q46.
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The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is :
Q47.
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Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system :
Q48.
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Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs :
Q49.
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Match the following hormones with the respective disease :
(a) Insulin
(i) Addison’s disease
(b) Thyroxin
(ii) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Corticoids
(iii) Acromegaly
(d) Growth Hormones
(iv) Goitre
(v) Diabetes mellitus
Select the correct option.
Q50.
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How does steroid hormone influence the cellular activities?
Q51.
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Which one of the following is **not** a method of in situ conservation of biodiversity?
Q52.
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What is the site of perception of photoperiod necessary for induction of flowering in plants?
Q53.
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Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin is :
Q54.
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Conversion of glucose to glucose-6 phosphate, the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is catalyzed by
Q55.
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Select the correct option :
Q56.
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Which of the following muscular disorders is inherited?
Q57.
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Which of the following statements is **incorrect**?
Q58.
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Which of the following statement is **incorrect**?
Q59.
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Select the **correctly** written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus :
Q60.
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Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries, are :
Q61.
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In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average weight
between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5kg die.
Which type of selection process is taking place?
Q62.
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The concept of ''*Omnis cellula-e cellula*'' regarding cell division was first proposed by :
Q63.
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Match the hominids with their correct brain size :
(a) Homo habilis
(i) 900 cc
(b) Homo neanderthalensis
(ii) 1350 cc
(c) Homo erectus
(iii) 650-800 cc
(d) Homo sapiens
(iv) 1400 cc
Select the correct option.
Q64.
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Use of an artificial kindney during hemodialysis may result in :
**
(a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body
(b) Non –elimination of excess potassium ions
(c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from gastro-intestinal tract
(d) Reduced RBC production
Which of the following options is the most appropriate**?
Q65.
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Which of the following factors is responsible for the formation of concentrated urine?
Q66.
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Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone?
Q67.
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Select the horomone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices.
Q68.
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Pinus seed **cannot** germinate and establish without fungal association. This is because :
Q69.
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What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the synergid?
Q70.
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Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as
Q71.
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Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in flowering plants is
incorrect?
Q72.
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In some plants, the female gamete develops into embryo without fertilization. This phenomenon is known as :
Q73.
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Placentation, in which ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is :
Q74.
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Grass leaves curl inward during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate reason from the following :
Q75.
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Consider the following statements :
**
(A)** Coenzyme of metal ion that is tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic group.
**(B)** A complete catalytic active enzyme with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme
**
Select the correct** option
Q76.
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Concanavalin A is :
Q77.
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DNA precipitation out of a mixture of bimolecules can be achieved by treatment with :
Q78.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Endonuclease. Identify the
**incorrect** statement.