neet-2021
NEET 2021
MEDICAL 2021 Previous Year
3 hDuration
696Total Marks
174Questions
3Sections
Instructions
General instructions for this test:
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- Total questions: 174 across 3 section(s); maximum marks: 696.
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Paper Structure
Chemistry
Chemistry
Q1.
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Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of :
Q2.
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The incorrect statement among the following is :
Q3.
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Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction? Choose the right option.
Q4.
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The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C-X' bond is :
Q5.
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BF~3~ is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization and number of electrons around the central atom, respectively are :
Q6.
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Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature?
Q7.
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Match List - I with List - II :
List - I
List - II
(a)
$$PC{l_5}$$
(i)
Square pyramidal
(b)
$$S{F_6}$$
(ii)
Trigonal planar
(c)
$$Br{F_5}$$
(iii)
Octahedral
(d)
$$B{F_3}$$
(iv)
Trigonal bipyramidal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q8.
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The pK~b~ of dimethyl amine and pK~a~ of acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct option for the pH of dimethyl ammonium acetate solution is :
Q9.
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The slope of Arrhenius plot $$\left( {\ln \,k\,v/s{1 \over T}} \right)$$ of first order reactino is $$-$$5 $$\times$$ 10^(3)K. The value of E~a~ of the reaction is. Choose the correct option for your answer.
[Given R = 8.314 JK^($$-$$1)mol^($$-$$1)]
Q10.
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For a reaction, A $$\to$$ B, enthalpy of reaction is $$-$$4.2 kJ mol^($$-$$1) and enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ mol^($$-$$1). The correct potential energy profile for the reaction is shown in option.
Q11.
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The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on?
Q12.
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The major product of the following chemical reaction is :


Q13.
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The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45$$^\circ$$C with benzene to octane in molar ratio 3 : 2 is :
[At 45$$^\circ$$C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
Q14.
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The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C~6~H~12~O~6~) in 250 ml of water (P~1~), 10 g of urea (CH~4~N~2~O) in 250 ml of water (P~2~) and 10 g of sucrose (C~12~H~22~O~11~) in 250 ml of water (P~3~). The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :
Q15.
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An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirical formula of this compound is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
Q16.
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For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is :
Q17.
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Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between C~P~ and C~V~ for one mole of ideal gas?
Q18.
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In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicted against it?
Q19.
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Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.
Q20.
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Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI.
Statement II : As the size of the elements, F, Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q21.
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Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
Q22.
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Match List-I with List-II :
List-I
List-II
(a)
$${[Fe{(CN)_6}]^{3 - }}$$
(i)
5.92 BM
(b)
$${[Fe{({H_2}O)_6}]^{3 + }}$$
(ii)
0 BM
(c)
$${[Fe{(CN)_6}]^{4 - }}$$
(iii)
4.90 BM
(d)
$${[Fe{({H_2}O)_6}]^{2 + }}$$
(iv)
1.73 BM
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q23.
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Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is :
Q24.
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The compound which shows metamerism is :
Q25.
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Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics.
Statement II :
Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q26.
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Consider the above reaction and identify the missing reagent/chemical.
Consider the above reaction and identify the missing reagent/chemical.
Q27.
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Match List-I with List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q28.
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The intermediate compound 'X' in the following chemical reaction is :


Q29.
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What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction?


Q30.
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The product formed in the following chemical reaction is :


Q31.
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The correct structure of 2, 6-dimethyl-dec-4-ene is
Q32.
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The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S cm^(2) mol^($$-$$1). What is the dissociation constant of acetic acid? Choose the correct option.
[$$\Lambda _{{H^ + }}^o$$ = 350 S cm^(2) mol^($$-$$1)
$$\Lambda _{C{H_3}CO{O^ - }}^o$$ = 50 S cm^(2) mol^($$-$$1)]
Q33.
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The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH~3~COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm^(2) mol^($$-$$1) respectively. The molar conductance of CH~3~COOH at infinite dilution is. Choose the right option for your answer.
Q34.
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Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.
Q35.
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A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light c = 3.0 $$\times$$ 10^(8) ms^($$-$$1)]
Q36.
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From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair?
Physics
Physics
Q1.
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A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and another unknown mass 'm' is suspended from the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the value of 'm' such that the rod is in equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s^(2))


Q2.
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From a circular ring of mass 'M' and radius 'R' an arc corresponding to a 90$$^\circ$$ sector is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring about an axis passing through the center of the ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is 'K' times 'MR^(2)'. Then the value of 'K' is :
Q3.
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Two conducting circular loops of radii R~1~ and R~2~ are placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If R~1~ >> R~2~, the mutual inductance M between them will be directly proportional to :
Q4.
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The E and G respectively denote energy and gravitational constant, then $${E \over G}$$ has the dimensions of :
Q5.
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If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of energy.
Q6.
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A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire
Main scale reading : 0 mm
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is :
Q7.
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A cup of coffee cools from 90$$^\circ$$C to 80$$^\circ$$C in t minutes, when the room temperature is 20$$^\circ$$C. The time taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80$$^\circ$$C to 60$$^\circ$$C at a room temperature same at 20$$^\circ$$C is :
Q8.
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Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the correct match from the given choices.
Column - I
Column - II
(A)
Root mean square speed of gas molecules
(P)
$${1 \over 3}nm{\overline v ^2}$$
(B)
Pressure exerted by ideal gas
(Q)
$$\sqrt {{{3RT} \over M}} $$
(C)
Average kinetic energy of a molecule
(R)
$${5 \over 2}RT$$
(D)
Total internal energy of 1 mole of a diatomic gas
(S)
$${3 \over 2}{k_B}T$$
Q9.
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The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerin becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerin is $${d \over 2}$$, then the viscous force acting on the ball will be :
Q10.
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Two charged spherical conductors of radius R~1~ and R~2~ are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface charge densities of the spheres ($$\sigma$$~1~ / $$\sigma$$~2~) is :
Q11.
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A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which direction will it move?


Q12.
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Polar molecules are the molecules :
Q13.
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Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
Q14.
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The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v. The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density is :
Q15.
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A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity $$\upsilon $$ = kV~e~ = (k < 1) from the surface of the earth. (V~e~ = escape velocity)
The maximum height above the surface reached by the particle is :
Q16.
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A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field $$\overrightarrow E $$ in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is 'd' and the area of each plate is 'A', the energy stored in the capacitor is : ($$\varepsilon $$~0~ = permittivity of free space)
Q17.
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The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure is :


Q18.
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Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Refractive index of the glass is $$\sqrt 3 $$


Q19.
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A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since :
Q20.
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A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance 'd' between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on 'A' leaves 'B' as a parallel beam, then the distance 'd' in cm will be :
Q21.
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A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would be formed at a distance of -


Q22.
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A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency 'n', the frequency of its potential energy is :
Q23.
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A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is suspended by it is -
Q24.
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For the given circuit, the input digital signals are applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be the output at the terminal y?


Q25.
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Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer.
(A) A Zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator.
(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.
Q26.
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The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is applied across each of them. Compare the currents in them.
Q27.
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An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed of 10^(5) m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance between the electron and the conductor is 20cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced by the electron at that instant.


Q28.
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A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the cable with the distance 'r' from the axis of the cable is represented by :
Q29.
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An electromagnetic wave of wavelength '$$\lambda$$' is incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible work function. If 'm' mass is of photoelectron emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength $$\lambda$$~d~, then :
Q30.
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The number of photons per second on an average emitted by the source of monochromatic light of wavelength 600nm, when it delivers the power of 3.3 $$\times$$ 10^($$-$$3) watt will be : (h = 6.6 $$\times$$ 10^($$-$$34) Js)
Q31.
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A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let S~n~ be the distance travelled by the block in the interval t = n $$-$$ 1 to t = n. The the ratio $${{{S_n}} \over {{S_{n + 1}}}}$$ is :
Q32.
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A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6MeV while that of fragments is 8.5MeV. The total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is :
Q33.
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A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5m/s^(2). At t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s? (Take g = 10 m/s^(2))
Q34.
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A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a uniform speed takes a time T to complete one revolution.
If this particle were projected with the same speed at an angle '$$\theta$$' to the horizontal, the maximum height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of projection, $$\theta$$, is then given by :
Q35.
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A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is (g = 10 m/s^(2)) nearly :
Q36.
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A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying coil in the shape of ,
(i) an equilateral tringle of side 'a'
(ii) A square of side 'a'
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case respectively are :
Q37.
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In the product
$$\overrightarrow F = q\left( {\overrightarrow v \times \overrightarrow B } \right)$$
$$ = q\overrightarrow v \times \left( {B\widehat i + B\widehat j + {B_0}\widehat k} \right)$$
For q = 1 and $$\overrightarrow v = 2\widehat i + 4\widehat j + 6\widehat k$$ and $$\overrightarrow F = 4\widehat i - 20\widehat j + 12\widehat k$$
What will be the complete expression for $$\overrightarrow B $$ ?
Q38.
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Water falls from a height of 60m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine? (g = 10 m/s^(2))
Q39.
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A particle is released from height S from the surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three times its potential energy. The height from the surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that instant are respectively -
Q40.
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The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-section and same material is 0.25$$\Omega$$. What will be the effective resistance if they are connected in series?
Q41.
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Three resistors having resistances r~1~, r~2~ and r~3~ are connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio $${{{i_3}} \over {{i_1}}}$$ of currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit is :


Q42.
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Column - I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor. Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match column-I and column-II with appropriate relations.
Column - I
Column - II
(A)
Drift Velocity
(P)
$${m \over {n{e^2}p}}$$
(B)
Electrical Resistivity
(Q)
$$ne{\upsilon _d}$$
(C)
Relaxation Period
(R)
$${{eE} \over m}\tau $$
(D)
Current Density
(S)
$${E \over J}$$
Q43.
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In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what length of the wire, the balance point occurs?
Q44.
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For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x-direction, which one of the following combination gives the correct possible directions for electric field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?
Q45.
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A capacitor of capacitance 'C', is connected across an ac source of voltage V, given by
V = V~0~sin$$\omega$$t
The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor, would then be given by :
Q46.
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A step down transformer connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the current in the primary circuit ?
Q47.
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A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80$$\mu$$F capacitor and 40$$\Omega$$ resistor is connected to 230V variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be :
Q48.
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An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are connected in series to an ac source of potential difference 'V' volts as shown in figure. Potential difference across L, C and R is 40V, 10V and 40V, respectively. The amplitude of current flowing through LCR series circuit is 10$$\sqrt 2 $$ A. The impedance of the circuit is :


Biology
Biology
Q1.
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+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
(a)
Aspergillus niger
(i)
Acetic Acid
(b)
Acetobacter aceti
(ii)
Lactice Acid
(c)
Clostridium butylicum
(iii)
Citric Acid
(d)
Lactobacillus
(iv)
Butyric Acid
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Q2.
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In the equation GPP - R = NPP
R represents :
Q3.
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+4 / 1
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as :
Q4.
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Which of the following statements is not correct?
Q5.
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Now-a-days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because:
Q6.
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The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F~1~ and F~2~ plants, can be understood from a diagram called :
Q7.
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In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
Q8.
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Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm.
(1) It serves as a covering for mouth.
(2) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can crawl.
(3) It is one of the sensory structures.
(4) It is the first body segment.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q9.
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Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
Q10.
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+4 / 1
Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?
Q11.
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Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach?
Q12.
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Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Q13.
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The first stable product of CO~2~ fixation in Sorghum is
Q14.
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Match the following :
List-I
List-II
(a)
Physalia
(i)
Pearl oyster
(b)
Limulus
(ii)
Portuguese Man of War
(c)
Ancylostoma
(iii)
Living fossil
(d)
Pinctada
(iv)
Hookworm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q15.
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Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?
Q16.
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Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
List-II
(a)
Metamerism
(i)
Coelenterata
(b)
Canal system
(ii)
Ctenophora
(c)
Comb plates
(iii)
Annelida
(d)
Cnidoblasts
(iv)
Porifera
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q17.
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Read the following statements
(1) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(2) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
(3) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.
(4) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
(5) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q18.
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Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reverse food material?
Q19.
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Gemmae are present in
Q20.
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Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?
Q21.
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**Assertion** **(A) :** A person goes to high altitude and experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.**
Reason** **(R) :** Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
Q22.
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Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
Q23.
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The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O~2~) and carbon dioxide (CO~2~) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are :
Q24.
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Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?
Q25.
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With regard to insulin choose correct options.
(1) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(2) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.
(3) The pro-insulin has C-peptide
(4) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q26.
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When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it is known as :
Q27.
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Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
List-II
(a)
Lenticels
(i)
Phellogen
(b)
Cork cambium
(ii)
Suberin deposition
(c)
Secondary cortex
(iii)
Exchange of gases
(d)
Cork
(iv)
Phelloderm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q28.
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Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
List-II
(a)
Cells with active cell division capacity
(i)
Vascular tissues
(b)
Tissue having all cells similar in structure and function
(ii)
Meristematic tissue
(c)
Tissue having different types of cells
(iii)
Sclereids
(d)
Dead cells with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen
(iv)
Simple tissue
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
Q29.
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Select the correct pair.
Q30.
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When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as :
Q31.
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The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are
Q32.
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Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
List-II
(a)
Cristae
(i)
Primary constriction in chromosome
(b)
Thylakoids
(ii)
Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
(c)
Centromere
(iii)
Infoldings in mitochondria
(d)
Cisternae
(iv)
Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q33.
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Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
Q34.
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Which one of the following statements about histones is wrong?
Q35.
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Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein?
Q36.
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Statement I : The codon 'AUG' codes for methionine and phenylalanine.
Statement II : 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code for the amino acid lysine.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q37.
mcq single
+4 / 1
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as
Q38.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes?
Q39.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Identify the correct statement.
Q40.
mcq single
+4 / 1
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as
Q41.
mcq single
+4 / 1
If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?
Q42.
mcq single
+4 / 1
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?
Q43.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Complete the flow chart on central dogma.


Q44.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
(a)
Filariasis
(i)
Haemophilus influenzae
(b)
Amoebiasis
(ii)
Trichophyton
(c)
Pneumonia
(iii)
Wuchereria bancrofti
(d)
Ringworm
(iv)
Entamoeba histolytica
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Q45.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Identify the incorrect pair
Q46.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into
Q47.
mcq single
+4 / 1
For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection?
Q48.
mcq single
+4 / 1
In the exponential growth equation
N~t~ = N~0~e^(rt), e represents
Q49.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Amensalism can be represented as :
Q50.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival?
Q51.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as "Universal recipients". This is due to :
Q52.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
Q53.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The centriole undergoes duplication during :
Q54.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G~1~ phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase?
Q55.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
Q56.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
List-II
(a)
S phase
(i)
Proteins are synthesized
(b)
$${G_2}$$ phase
(ii)
Inactive phase
(c)
Quiescent stage
(iii)
Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
(d)
$${G_1}$$ phase
(iv)
DNA replication
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q57.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
Q58.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?
Q59.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
Q60.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :
Q61.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C formation is produced by :
Q62.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
(a)
Allen's Rule
(i)
Kangaroo rat
(b)
Physiological adaptation
(ii)
Desert lizard
(c)
Behavioural adaptation
(iii)
Marine fish at depth
(d)
Biochemical adaptation
(iv)
Polar seal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q63.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is
Q64.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field
Q65.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Plants follow different pathways in response to environment of phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called
Q66.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Q67.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
(a)
Scapula
(i)
Cartilaginous joints
(b)
Cranium
(ii)
Flat bone
(c)
Sternum
(iii)
Fibrous joints
(d)
Vertebral column
(iv)
Triangular flat bone
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Q68.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as :
Q69.
mcq single
+4 / 1
During muscular contraction which of the following events occur?
(1) 'H' zone disappears
(2) 'A' band widens
(3) 'I' band reduces in width
(4) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi.
(5) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q70.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which of the following statements is correct?
Q71.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
List-II
(a)
Adaptive radiation
(i)
Selection of resistant varieties due to excessive use of herbicides and pesticides
(b)
Convergent evolution
(ii)
Bones of forelimbs in Man and Whale
(c)
Divergent evolution
(iii)
Wings of Butterfly and Bird
(d)
Evolution by anthropogenic action
(iv)
Darwin Finches
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q72.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is :
Q73.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?
Q74.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
List-II
(a)
Vaults
(i)
Entry of sperm through Cervix is blocked
(b)
IUDs
(ii)
Removal of Vas deferens
(c)
Vasectomy
(iii)
Phagocytosis of sperms within the Uterus
(d)
Tubectomy
(iv)
Removal of fallopian tube
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.
Q75.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Veneral diseases can spread through :
(1) Using sterile needles
(2) Transfusion of blood from infected person
(3) Infector mother to foetus
(4) Kissing
(5) Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.
Q76.
mcq single
+4 / 1
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?
Q77.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :
Q78.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Diadelphous stamens are found in
Q79.
mcq single
+4 / 1
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is :
Q80.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match Column-I with Column-II
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
Q81.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Following are the statements with reference to 'lipids'.
(1) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids
(2) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
(3) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol
(4) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.
(5) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q82.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
List-II
(a)
Protein
(i)
C = C double bonds
(b)
Unsaturated fatty acid
(ii)
Phosphodiester bonds
(c)
Nucleic acid
(iii)
Glycosidic bonds
(d)
Polysaccharide
(iv)
Peptide bonds
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q83.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants?
Q84.
mcq single
+4 / 1
During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first?
Q85.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Plasmid pBR322 has Pst I restriction enzyme site within gene amp^(R) that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for $$\beta$$-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain
Q86.
mcq single
+4 / 1
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is :
Q87.
mcq single
+4 / 1
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :
Q88.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II .
List-I
List-II
(a)
Protpolast fusion
(i)
Totipotency
(b)
Plant tissue culture
(ii)
Pomato
(c)
Meristem culture
(iii)
Somaclones
(d)
Micropropagation
(iv)
Virus free plants
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q89.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
Q90.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?