neet-2025
NEET 2025
MEDICAL 2025 Previous Year
3 hDuration
716Total Marks
179Questions
3Sections
Instructions
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- Total questions: 179 across 3 section(s); maximum marks: 716.
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Paper Structure
Chemistry
Chemistry
Q1.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List - I with List - II.
List - I
List - II
A
Haber process
I
Fe catalyst
B
Wacker oxidation
II
$\mathrm{PdCl}_2$
C
Wilkinson catalyst
III
$\left[\left(\mathrm{PPh}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{RhCl}\right]$
D
Ziegler catalyst
IV
$\mathrm{TiCl}_4$ with $\mathrm{Al}\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3$
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q2.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Ferromagnetism is considered as an extreme form of paramagnetism.
Statement II : The number of unpaired electrons in a $\mathrm{Cr}^{2+}$ ion $(\mathrm{Z}=24)$ is the same as that of a $\mathrm{Nd}^{3+}$ ion $(\mathrm{Z}=60)$.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q3.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Identify the correct orders against the property mentioned
A. $\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}>\mathrm{NH}_3>\mathrm{CHCl}_3$-dipole moment
B. $\mathrm{XeF}_4>\mathrm{XeO}_3>\mathrm{XeF}_2$ - number of lone pairs on central atom
C. $\mathrm{O}-\mathrm{H}>\mathrm{C}-\mathrm{H}>\mathrm{N}-\mathrm{O}-$ bond length
D. $\mathrm{N}_2>\mathrm{O}_2>\mathrm{H}_2-$ bond enthalpy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q4.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable.
Statement II: As bond order increases, the bond length increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Q5.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II
List - I
List - II
A
$\mathrm{XeO}_3$
I
$\mathrm{sp}^3 \mathrm{~d}$; linear
B
$\mathrm{XeF}_2$
II
$\mathrm{sp}^3$; pyramidal
C
$\mathrm{XeOF}_4$
III
$s p^3 d^3$; distorted octahedral
D
$\mathrm{XeF}_6$
IV
$s p^3 d^2$; square pyramidal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q6.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Phosphoric acid ionizes in three steps with their ionization constant values $K_{a_1}, K_{a_2}$ and $K_{a_3}$, respectively, while $K$ is the overall ionization constant. Which of the following statements are true?
A. $\quad \log \mathrm{K}=\log \mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{a}_1}+\log \mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{a}_2}+\log \mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{a}_3}$
B. $\mathrm{H}_3 \mathrm{PO}_4$ is a stronger acid than $\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{PO}_4^{-}$and $\mathrm{HPO}_4^{2-}$
C. $K_{a_1}>K_{a_2}>K_{a_3}$
D. $K_{a_1}=\frac{K_{a_3}+K_{a_2}}{2}$
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q7.
mcq single
+4 / 1
If the molar conductivity $\left(\Lambda_{\mathrm{m}}\right)$ of a $0.050 \mathrm{~mol} \mathrm{~L}^{-1}$ solution of a monobasic weak acid is $90 \mathrm{~S} \mathrm{~cm}^2 \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}$, its extent (degree) of dissociation will be
[Assume $\Lambda_{+}^{\circ}=349.6 \mathrm{~S} \mathrm{~cm}^2 \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}$ and $\Lambda_{-}^{\circ}=50.4 \mathrm{~S} \mathrm{~cm}^2 \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}$.]
Q8.
mcq single
+4 / 1
If the rate constant of a reaction is $0.03 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}$, how much time does it take for $7.2 \mathrm{~mol} \mathrm{~L}^{-1}$ concentration of the reactant to get reduced to $0.9 \mathrm{~mol} \mathrm{~L}^{-1}$ ?
(Given: $\log 2=0.301$ )
Q9.
mcq single
+4 / 1
If the half-life ( $t_{1 / 2}$ ) for a first order reaction is 1 minute, then the time required for $99.9 \%$ completion of the reaction is closest to :
Q10.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Consider the following compounds :
${\mathrm{K\underline{O}}}_2, \mathrm{H}_2 \underline{\mathrm{O}}_2$ and $\mathrm{H}_2 \underline{S }O_4$
The oxidation state of the underlined elements in them are, respectively,
Q11.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The major product of the following reaction is
Q12.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :
undergoes $S_N 2$ reaction faster than
Reason (R) : lodine is a better leaving group because of its large size.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
undergoes $S_N 2$ reaction faster than
Reason (R) : lodine is a better leaving group because of its large size.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q13.
mcq single
+4 / 1
5 moles of liquid X and 10 moles of liquid Y make a solution having a vapour pressure of 70 torr. The vapour pressures of pure $X$ and $Y$ are 63 torr and 78 torr respectively. Which of the following is true regarding the described solution?
Q14.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II
List - I
(Exsample)
List - II
(Type of Solution)
A
Humidity
I
Solid in solid
B
Alloys
II
Liquid in gas
C
Amalgams
III
Solid in gas
D
Smoke
IV
Liquid in solid
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q15.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point?
Q16.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Dalton's Atomic theory could not explain which of the following?
Q17.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Among the following, choose the ones with equal number of atoms.
A. 212 g of $\mathrm{Na}_2 \mathrm{CO}_3(\mathrm{~s})$ [molar mass $=106 \mathrm{~g}$ ]
B. 248 g of $\mathrm{Na}_2 \mathrm{O}(\mathrm{s})$ [molar mass $=62 \mathrm{~g}$ ]
C. 240 g of $\mathrm{NaOH}(\mathrm{s})$ [molar mass $=40 \mathrm{~g}$ ]
D. 12 g of $\mathrm{H}_2(\mathrm{~g})$ [molar mass $=2 \mathrm{~g}$ ]
E. 220 g of $\mathrm{CO}_2(\mathrm{~g})$ [molar mass $=44 \mathrm{~g}$ ]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q18.
mcq single
+4 / 1
For the reaction $\mathrm{A}(\mathrm{g}) \rightleftharpoons 2 \mathrm{~B}(\mathrm{~g})$, the backward reaction rate constant is higher than the forward reaction rate constant by a factor of 2500 , at 1000 K.
[Given : $\mathrm{R}=0.0831 \mathrm{~L} \mathrm{~atm} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1} \mathrm{~K}^{-1}$ ]
$K_p$ for the reaction at $1000 K$ is
Q19.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Higher yield of NO in $\mathrm{N}_2(\mathrm{~g})+\mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightleftharpoons 2 \mathrm{NO}(\mathrm{g})$ can be obtained at $\left[\Delta \mathrm{H}\right.$ of the reaction $\left.=+180.7 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\right]$
A. Higher temperature
B. Lower temperature
C. Higher concentration of $\mathrm{N}_2$
D. Higher concentration of $\mathrm{O}_2$
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q20.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which of the following statements are true?
A. Unlike Ga that has a very high melting point, Cs has a very low melting point.
B. On Pauling scale, the electronegativity values of N and Cl are not the same.
C. $\mathrm{Ar}, \mathrm{K}^{+}, \mathrm{Cl}^{-}, \mathrm{Ca}^{2+}$, and $\mathrm{S}^{2-}$ are all isoelectronic species.
D. The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies of $\mathrm{Na}, \mathrm{Mg}, \mathrm{Al}$, and Si is $\mathrm{Si}>\mathrm{Al}>\mathrm{Mg}>\mathrm{Na}$.
E. The atomic radius of Cs is greater than that of Li and Rb.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q21.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which among the following electronic configurations belong to main group elements?
A. $[\mathrm{Ne}] 3 \mathrm{~s}^1$
B. $[\operatorname{Ar}] 3 \mathrm{~d}^3 4 \mathrm{~s}^2$
C. $[K r] 4 d^{10} 5 s^2 5 p^5$
D. $[\operatorname{Ar}] 3 \mathrm{~d}^{10} 4 \mathrm{~s}^1$
E. $[R n] 5 f^0 6 d^2 7 s^2$
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :
Q22.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The standard heat of formation, in $\mathrm{kcal} / \mathrm{mol}$ of $\mathrm{Ba}^{2+}$ is :
[Given : standard heat of formation of $\mathrm{SO}_4^{2-}$ ion $(\mathrm{aq})=-216 \mathrm{kcal} / \mathrm{mol}$, standard heat of crystallisation of $\mathrm{BaSO}_4(\mathrm{~s})=-4.5 \mathrm{kcal} / \mathrm{mol}$, standard heat of formation of $\left.\mathrm{BaSO}_4(\mathrm{~s})=-349 \mathrm{kcal} / \mathrm{mol}\right]$
Q23.
mcq single
+4 / 1
$\mathrm{C}(\mathrm{s})+2 \mathrm{H}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_4(\mathrm{~g}) ; \Delta \mathrm{H}=-74.8 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}$. Which of the following diagrams gives an accurate representation of the above reaction? [ $\mathrm{R} \rightarrow$ reactants; $\mathrm{P} \rightarrow$ products]
Q24.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, arsenic can form arsine.
Statement II: Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Q25.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The correct order of the wavelength of light absorbed by the following complexes is,
A. $\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_6\right]^{3+}$
B. $\left[\mathrm{Co}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]^{3-}$
C. $\left[\mathrm{Cu}\left(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\right)_4\right]^{2+}$
D. $\left[\mathrm{Ti}\left(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\right)_6\right]^{3+}$
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q26.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which of the following are paramagnetic?
A. $\left[\mathrm{NiCl}_4\right]^{2-}$
B. $\mathrm{Ni}(\mathrm{CO})_4$
C. $\left[\mathrm{Ni}(\mathrm{CN})_4\right]^{2-}$
D. $\left[\mathrm{Ni}\left(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\right)_6\right]^{2+}$
E. $\mathrm{Ni}\left(\mathrm{PPh}_3\right)_4$
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q27.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Total number of possible isomers (both structural as well as stereoisomers) of cyclic ethers of molecular formula $\mathrm{C}_4 \mathrm{H}_8 \mathrm{O}$ is :
Q28.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II
List - I
(Mixture)
List - II
(Method of separation)
A
$\mathrm{CHCl}_3+\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{NH}_2$
I
Distillation under reduced pressure
B
Crude oil in petroleum industry
II
Steam distillation
C
Glycerol from spent-lye
III
Fractional distillation
D
Aniline - water
IV
Simple distillation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q29.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Among the given compounds I-III, the correct order of bond dissociation energy of C-H bond marked with * is :
Q30.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II
List - I
(Ion)
List - II
(Group Number in Cation Analysis)
A
$\mathrm{Co}^{2+}$
I
Group-I
B
$\mathrm{Mg}^{2+}$
II
Group-III
C
$\mathrm{Pb}^{2+}$
III
Group-IV
D
$\mathrm{Al}^{3+}$
IV
Group-VI
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q31.
mcq single
+4 / 1
How many products (including stereoisomers) are expected from monochlorination of the following compound?
Q32.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which one of the following compounds can exist as cis-trans isomers?
Q33.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Identify the suitable reagent for the following conversion.
Q34.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The correct order of decreasing acidity of the following aliphatic acids is
Q35.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which one of the following reactions does NOT belong to "Lassaigne's test"?
Q36.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Predict the major product ' $P$ ' in the following sequence of reactions-
Q37.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which one of the following reactions does NOT give benzene as the product?
Q38.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which one of the following compounds does not decolourize bromine water?
Q39.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Sugar ' $X$ '
A. is found in honey
B. is a keto sugar
C. exists in $\alpha$ and $\beta$-anomeric forms.
D. Is laevorotatory.
' X ' is :
Q40.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II.
List - I
(Name of Vitamin)
List - II
(Deficiency disease)
A
Vitamin $B_{12}$
I
Cheilosis
B
Vitamin $D$
II
Convulsions
C
Vitamin $B_{2}$
III
Rickets
D
Vitamin $B_{5}$
IV
Pernicious anaemia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q41.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : Benzenediazonium salt is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at $273-278 \mathrm{~K}$. It decomposes easily in the dry state.
Statement-II : Insertion of iodine into the benzene ring is difficult and hence iodobenzene is prepared through the reaction of benzenediazonium salt with KI.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Q42.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The correct order of decreasing basic strength of the given amines is:
Answer (1)
Sol. Lower is the value of $\mathrm{pK}_{\mathrm{b}}$, higher is the basicity
Also aliphatic amines are stronger bases than aromatic amines.
$\mathrm{pK}_{\mathrm{b}}$ : Benzenamine > N-Methylaniline > Ethanamine > N-Ethylethanamine
Basic strength : N-Ethylethanamine > Ethanamine > N-Methylaniline > Benzenamine
Q43.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The ratio of the wavelengths of the light absorbed by a Hydrogen atom when it undergoes $n=2 \rightarrow n=3$ and $n=4 \rightarrow$ $\mathrm{n}=6$ transitions, respectively, is
Q44.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Energy and radius of first Bohr orbit of $\mathrm{He}^{+}$and $\mathrm{Li}^{2+}$ are [Given $\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{H}}=2.18 \times 10^{-18} \mathrm{~J}, \mathrm{a}_0=52.9 \mathrm{pm}$ ]
Physics
Physics
Q1.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet, placed between two crossed polaroids at $22.5^{\circ}$ from the polarization axis of one of the polaroids, is ( $I 0_0$ is the intensity of polarised light after passing through the first polaroid):
Q2.
mcq single
+4 / 1
An unpolarized light beam travelling in air is incident on a medium of refractive index 1.73 at Brewster's angle. Then
Q3.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The Sun rotates around its centre once in 27 days. What will be the period of revolution if the Sun were to expand to twice its present radius without any external influence? Assume the Sun to be a sphere of uniform density.
Q4.
mcq single
+4 / 1
A uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 5 m leans against a smooth vertical wall making an angle of $60^{\circ}$ with it. The other end rests on a rough horizontal floor. The friction force that the floor exerts on the rod is (Take $g=10 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^2$)
Q5.
mcq single
+4 / 1
A sphere of radius $R$ is cut from a larger solid sphere of radius $2 R$ as shown in the figure. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the smaller sphere to that of the rest part of the sphere about the $Y$-axis is:
Q6.
mcq single
+4 / 1
$A B$ is a part of an electrical circuit (see figure). The potential difference " $V_A-V_B$ ", at the instant when current $i=2 \mathrm{~A}$ and is increasing at a rate of $1 \mathrm{amp} /$ second is:
Q7.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Consider the diameter of a spherical object being measured with the help of a Vernier callipers. Suppose its 10 Vernier Scale Divisions (V.S.D.) are equal to its 9 Main Scale Divisions (M.S.D.). The least division in the M.S. is 0.1 cm and the zero of V.S. is at $x=0.1 \mathrm{~cm}$ when the jaws of Vernier callipers are closed.
If the main scale reading for the diameter is $M=5 \mathrm{~cm}$ and the number of coinciding vernier division is 8 , the measured diameter after zero error correction, is
Q8.
mcq single
+4 / 1
A physical quantity $P$ is related to four observations $a, b, c$ and $d$ as follows:
$$P=a^3 b^2 / c \sqrt{d}$$
The percentage errors of measurement in $a, b, c$ and $d$ are $1 \%, 3 \%, 2 \%$, and $4 \%$ respectively. The percentage error in the quantity $P$ is
Q9.
mcq single
+4 / 1
A balloon is made of a material of surface tension $S$ and its inflation outlet (from where gas is filled in it) has small area $A$. It is filled with a gas of density $\rho$ and takes a spherical shape of radius $R$. When the gas is allowed to flow freely out of it, its radius $r$ changes from $R$ to 0 (zero) in time $T$. If the speed $v(r)$ of gas coming out of the balloon depends on $r$ as $r^\alpha$ and $T \propto S^\alpha A^\beta \rho^\gamma R^\delta$ then
Q10.
mcq single
+4 / 1
An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 litre has 18.20 moles of oxygen. After some oxygen is withdrawn from the cylinder, its gauge pressure drops to 11 atmospheric pressures at temperature $27^{\circ} \mathrm{C}$. The mass of the oxygen withdrawn from the cylinder is nearly equal to:
[Given, $R=\frac{100}{12} \mathrm{~J} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1} \mathrm{~K}^{-1}$, and molecular mass of $\mathrm{O}_2=32,1$ atm pressure $=1.01 \times 10^5 \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m}$]
Q11.
mcq single
+4 / 1
A container has two chambers of volumes $V_1=2$ litres and $V_2=3$ litres separated by a partition made of a thermal insulator. The chambers contain $n_1=5$ and $n_2=4$ moles of ideal gas at pressures $p_1=1 \mathrm{~atm}$ and $p_2=2 \mathrm{~atm}$, respectively. When the partition is removed, the mixture attains an equilibrium pressure of
Q12.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Three identical heat conducting rods are connected in series as shown in the figure. The rods on the sides have thermal conductivity $2 K$ while that in the middle has thermal conductivity $K$. The left end of the combination is maintained at temperature $3 T$ and the right end at $T$. The rods are thermally insulated from outside. In steady state, temperature at the left junction is $T_1$ and that at the right junction is $T_2$. The ratio $T_1 / T_2$ is
Q13.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Two gases $A$ and $B$ are filled at the same pressure in separate cylinders with movable pistons of radius $r_A$ and $r_B$, respectively. On supplying an equal amount of heat to both the systems reversibly under constant pressure, the pistons of gas $A$ and $B$ are displaced by 16 cm and 9 cm , respectively. If the change in their internal energy is the same, then the ratio $\frac{r_A}{r_B}$ is equal to
Q14.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Consider a water tank shown in the figure. It has one wall at $x=L$ and can be taken to be very wide in the $z$ direction. When filled with a liquid of surface tension $S$ and density $\rho$, the liquid surface makes angle $\theta_0\left(\theta_0 \ll 1\right)$ with the $x$-axis at $x=L$. If $y(x)$ is the height of the surface then the equation for $y(x)$ is:
(take $\theta(x)=\sin \theta(x)=\tan \theta(x)=\frac{d y}{d x}, g$ is the acceleration due to gravity)
(take $\theta(x)=\sin \theta(x)=\tan \theta(x)=\frac{d y}{d x}, g$ is the acceleration due to gravity)
Q15.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Two identical charged conducting spheres $A$ and $B$ have their centres separated by a certain distance. Charge on each sphere is $q$ and the force of repulsion between them is $F$. A third identical uncharged conducting sphere is brought in contact with sphere $A$ first and then with $B$ and finally removed from both. New force of repulsion between spheres $A$ and $B$ (Radii of $A$ and $B$ are negligible compared to the distance of separation so that for calculating force between them they can be considered as point charges) is best given as:
Q16.
mcq single
+4 / 1
An electric dipole with dipole moment $5 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{Cm}$ is aligned with the direction of a uniform electric field of magnitude $4 \times 10^5 \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{C}$. The dipole is then rotated through an angle of $60^{\circ}$ with respect to the electric field. The change in the potential energy of the dipole is:
Q17.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The radius of Martian orbit around the Sun is about 4 times the radius of the orbit of Mercury. The Martian year is 687 Earth days. Then which of the following is the length of 1 year on Mercury?
Q18.
mcq single
+4 / 1
A body weighs 48 N on the surface of the earth. The gravitational force experienced by the body due to the earth at a height equal to one-third the radius of the earth from its surface is:
Q19.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are separated by $d$. Two slabs of different dielectric constant $K_1$ and $K_2$ with thickness $\frac{3}{8} d$ and $\frac{d}{2}$, respectively are inserted in the capacitor. Due to this, the capacitance becomes two times larger than when there is nothing between the plates. If $K_1=1.25 K_2$, the value of $K_1$ is:
Q20.
mcq single
+4 / 1
A microscope has an objective of focal length 2 cm , eyepiece of focal length 4 cm and the tube length of 40 cm . If the distance of distinct vision of eye is 25 cm , the magnification in the microscope is
Q21.
mcq single
+4 / 1
In a certain camera, a combination of four similar thin convex lenses are arranged axially in contact. Then the power of the combination and the total magnification in comparison to the power ( $p$ ) and magnification ( $m$ ) for each lens will be, respectively
Q22.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Two identical point masses $P$ and $Q$, suspended from two separate massless springs of spring constants $k_1$ and $k_2$, respectively, oscillate vertically. If their maximum speeds are the same, the ratio ( $A Q / A_\rho$ ) of the amplitude $A Q$ of mass $Q$ to the amplitude $A_\rho$ of mass $P$ is
Q23.
mcq single
+4 / 1
In an oscillating spring mass system, a spring is connected to a box filled with sand. As the box oscillates, sand leaks slowly out of the box vertically so that the average frequency $\omega(t)$ and average amplitude $A(t)$ of the system change with time $t$. Which one of the following options schematically depicts these changes correctly?
Q24.
mcq single
+4 / 1
A full wave rectifier circuit with diodes $\left(D_1\right)$ and $\left(D_2\right)$ is shown in the figure. If input supply voltage $\mathrm{V}_{\text {in }}=220 \sin (100 \pi t)$ volt, then at $t=15 \mathrm{msec}$
Q25.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The output ( $Y$ ) of the given logic implementation is similar to the output of an/a ________ gate.
Q26.
mcq single
+4 / 1
A parallel plate capacitor made of circular plates is being charged such that the surface charge density on its plates is increasing at a constant rate with time. The magnetic field arising due to displacement current is:
Q27.
mcq single
+4 / 1
A 2 amp current is flowing through two different small circular copper coils having radii ratio $1: 2$. The ratio of their respective magnetic moments will be
Q28.
mcq single
+4 / 1
An electron (mass $9 \times 10^{-31} \mathrm{~kg}$ and charge $1.6 \times 10^{-19} \mathrm{C}$ ) moving with speed $c / 100(c=$ speed of light) is injected into a magnetic field $\vec{B}$ of magnitude $9 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~T}$ perpendicular to its direction of motion. We wish to apply an uniform electric field $\vec{E}$ together with the magnetic field so that the electron does not deflect from its path. Then (speed of light $c=3$ $\times 10^3 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}$)
Q29.
mcq single
+4 / 1
A model for quantized motion of an electron in a uniform magnetic field $B$ states that the flux passing through the orbit of the electron in $n(h l e)$ where $n$ is an integer, $h$ is Planck's constant and $e$ is the magnitude of electron's charge. According to the model, the magnetic moment of an electron in its lowest energy state will be ( $m$ is the mass of the electron)
Q30.
mcq single
+4 / 1
De-Broglie wavelength of an electron orbiting in the $n=2$ state of hydrogen atom is close to
(Given Bohr radius $=0.052 \mathrm{~nm}$ )
Q31.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which of the following options represent the variation of photoelectric current with property of light shown on the x-axis?
Q32.
mcq single
+4 / 1
A photon and an electron (mass $m$ ) have the same energy $E$. The ratio ( $\lambda_{\text {photon }} / \lambda_{\text {electron }}$ ) of their de Broglie wavelengths is: ( $c$ is the speed of light)
Q33.
mcq single
+4 / 1
In some appropriate units, time $(t)$ and position $(x)$ relation of a moving particle is given by $t=x^2+x$. The acceleration of the particle is
Q34.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Two cities $X$ and $Y$ are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every $T$ min. A girl is driving scooty with a speed of $60 \mathrm{~km} / \mathrm{h}$ in the direction $X$ to $Y$ notices that a bus goes past her every 30 minutes in the direction of her motion, and every 10 minutes in the opposite direction. Choose the correct option for the period $T$ of the bus service and the speed (assumed constant) of the buses.
Q35.
mcq single
+4 / 1
A particle of mass $m$ is moving around the origin with a constant force $F$ pulling it towards the origin. If Bohr model is used to describe its motion, the radius of the $n^{\text {th }}$ orbit and the particle's speed $v$ in the orbit depend on $n$ as
Q36.
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+4 / 1
A ball of mass 0.5 kg is dropped from a height of 40 m . The ball hits the ground and rises to a height of 10 m . The impulse imparted to the ball during its collision with the ground is (Take $g=9.8 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^2$ )
Q37.
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A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency $f$ in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically in a water drum to half of its length. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now equal to:
Q38.
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There are two inclined surfaces of equal length $(L)$ and same angle of inclination $45^{\circ}$ with the horizontal. One of them is rough and the other is perfectly smooth. A given body takes 2 times as much time to slide down on rough surface than on the smooth surface. The coefficient of kinetic friction $\left(\mu_k\right)$ between the object and the rough surface is close to
Q39.
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+4 / 1
A bob of heavy mass $m$ is suspended by a light string of length $/$. The bob is given a horizontal velocity $v_0$ as shown in figure. If the string gets slack at some point $P$ making an angle $\theta$ from the horizontal, the ratio of the speed $v$ of the bob at point $P$ to its initial speed $v_0$ is:
Q40.
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+4 / 1
The kinetic energies of two similar cars $A$ and $B$ are 100 J and 225 J respectively. On applying breaks, car $A$ stops after 1000 m and car $B$ stops after 1500 m . If $F_A$ and $F_B$ are the forces applied by the breaks on cars $A$ and $B$ respectively, then the ratio of $\frac{F_A}{F_B}$ is
Q41.
mcq single
+4 / 1
A wire of resistance $R$ is cut into 8 equal pieces. From these pieces two equivalent resistances are made by adding four of these together in parallel. Then these two sets are added in series. The net effective resistance of the combination is:
Q42.
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The current passing through the battery in the given circuit, is:
Q43.
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+4 / 1
A constant voltage of 50 V is maintained between the points $A$ and $B$ of the circuit shown in the figure. The current through the branch $C D$ of the circuit is:
Q44.
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+4 / 1
The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by $$
E_z=60 \cos \left(5 x+1.5 \times 10^9 t\right) \mathrm{V} / \mathrm{m}$$ Then expression for the corresponding magnetic field is (here subscripts denote the direction of the field) :
Q45.
mcq single
+4 / 1
To an ac power supply of 220 V at 50 Hz , a resistor of $20 \Omega$, a capacitor of reactance $25 \Omega$ and an inductor of reactance $45 \Omega$ are connected in series. The corresponding current in the circuit and the phase angle between the current and the voltage is, respectively
Biology
Biology
Q1.
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Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?
Q2.
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+4 / 1
Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for
Q3.
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+4 / 1
Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?
A. Aspergillus niger
B. Lactobacillus
C. Trichoderma polysporum
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E. Propionibacterium sharmanii
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q4.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?
A. Azotobacter
B. Oscillatoria
C. Anabaena
D. Volvox
E. Nostoc
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q5.
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Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?
Q6.
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Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.
Statement II : The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Q7.
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+4 / 1
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers.
Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Q8.
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Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?
Q9.
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+4 / 1
With the help of given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in $F_3$ generation.
Q10.
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What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?
Q11.
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Genes $R$ and $Y$ follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?
Q12.
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While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal?
Q13.
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+4 / 1
Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?
Q14.
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+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II
List - I
List - II
A
Chlorophyll a
I
Yellow-green
B
Chlorophyll b
II
Yellow
C
Xanthophylls
III
Blue-green
D
Carotenoids
IV
Yellow to Yellow-orange
Choose the option with all correct matches.
Q15.
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All living members of the class Cyclostomata are :
Q16.
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+4 / 1
Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is :
A. Respiration and Locomotion
B. Excretion and Locomotion
C. Capture and transport of food
D. Digestion and Respiration
E. Digestion and Excretion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q17.
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Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?
Q18.
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Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate.
Reason (R) : The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q19.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II.
List - I
List - II
A
Pteridophyte
I
Salvia
B
Bryophyte
II
Ginkgo
C
Angiosperm
III
Polytrichum
D
Gymnosperm
IV
Salvinia
Choose the option with all correct matches.
Q20.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.
A. Prothallus stage
B. Meiosis in spore mother cells
C. Fertilisation
D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte.
E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q21.
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+4 / 1
The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is
A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.
B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.
C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.
D. Formation of sporophyte.
E. Release of antherozoids into water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q22.
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+4 / 1
In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?
Q23.
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Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?
Q24.
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+4 / 1
Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.
Choose the correct answer from the following :
Q25.
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Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?
Q26.
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+4 / 1
In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called:
Q27.
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+4 / 1
Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.
Q28.
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From the statements given below choose the correct option :
A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.
C. The two sub-units of 80 S ribosome are 60 S and 40 S while that of 70 S are 50 S and 30 S .
D. The two sub-units of 80 S ribosome are 60 S and 20 S and that of 70 S are 50 S and 20 S .
E. The two sub-units of 80 S are 60 S and 30 S and that of 70 S are 50 S and 30 S .
Q29.
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+4 / 1
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A), and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell.
Reason (R) : Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q30.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List- II.
List - I
List - II
A
Centromere
I
Mitochondrion
B
Cilium
II
Cell division
C
Cristae
III
Cell movement
D
Cell membrane
IV
Phospholipid Bilayer
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q31.
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+4 / 1
A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell well wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is
Q32.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?
Q33.
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Which factor is important for termination of transcription?
Q34.
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Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.
Statement II: DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Q35.
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+4 / 1
Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?
Q36.
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+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II
List - I
List - II
A
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
I
Streptococcus pneumoniae
B
Euchromatin
II
Densely packed and dark-stained
C
Frederick Griffith
III
Loosely packed and light-stained
D
Heterochromatin
IV
DNA as genetic material confirmation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q37.
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Given below are two statements :
Statement 1 : Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA.
Statement II : RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Q38.
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Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?
A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.
B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.
C. Addition of methyl group at 5' end of hnRNA.
D. Addition of adenine residues at 3' end of hnRNA.
E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q39.
mcq single
+4 / 1
After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s) / tissue(s) like
A. thymus
B. bone marrow
C. spleen
D. Iymph nodes
E. Peyer's patches
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Q40.
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Which are correct:
A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs.
B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells.
C. $\alpha$-interferon activate the cancer patients' immune system and helps in destroying the tumour.
D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers.
E. In the case of leukaemia blood cell counts are decreased.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q41.
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Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?
Q42.
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+4 / 1
Identify the statement that is NOT correct.
Q43.
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+4 / 1
Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to:
A. A mass of proliferating cell
B. Rapid growth of cells
C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue
D. Those confined to original location
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q44.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II
List - I
List - II
A
Emphysema
I
Rapid spasms in muscle due to low $\mathrm{Ca}^{++}$in body fluid
B
Angina Pectoris
II
Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface
C
Glomerulonephritis
III
Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle
D
Tetany
IV
Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q45.
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+4 / 1
Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?
Q46.
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+4 / 1
Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?
Q47.
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+4 / 1
What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?
Q48.
mcq single
+4 / 1
What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?
Q49.
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+4 / 1
Find the correct statement :
(A) In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks.
(B) In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.
(C) In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation.
(D) In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month.
(E) In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q50.
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Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?
Q51.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The first menstruation is called :
Q52.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II.
List - I
List - II
A
Head
I
Enzymes
B
Middle piece
II
Sperm motility
C
Acrosome
III
Energy
D
Tail
IV
Genetic material
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q53.
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Consider the following :
A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis.
B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females.
C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.
D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q54.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II
List - I
List - II
A
Progesterone
I
Pars intermedia
B
Relaxin
II
Ovary
C
Melanocyte stimulating hormone
III
Adrenal Medulla
D
Catecholamines
IV
Corpus luteum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q55.
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Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?
Q56.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones:
(A) It causes pupilary constriction.
(B) It is a hyperglycemic hormone.
(C) It causes piloerection.
(D) It increases strength of heart contraction.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q57.
mcq single
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Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:
A. Nodal tissue
B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata
C. Adrenal medullary hormones
D. Adrenal cortical hormones
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q58.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?
Q59.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II.
List - I
List - II
A
Heart
I
Erythropoietin
B
Kidney
II
Aldosterone
C
Gastro-intestinal tract
III
Atrial natriuretic factor
D
Adrenal Cortex
IV
Secretin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q60.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II
List - I
List - II
A
The Evil Quartet
I
Cryopreservation
B
Ex situ conservation
II
Alien species invasion
C
Lantana camara
III
Causes of biodiversity losses
D
Dodo
IV
Extinction
Choose the option with all correct matches.
Q61.
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+4 / 1
Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?
Q62.
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+4 / 1
Read the following statements on plant growth and development.
(A) Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.
(B) Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.
(C) Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation.
(D) Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.
(E) Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.
Choose the option with all correct statements.
Q63.
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Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?
Q64.
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+4 / 1
The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as
Q65.
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+4 / 1
Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.
A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.
B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.
C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.
D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.
E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q66.
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Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.
Q67.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which of the following diagrams is correct with regard to the proximal $(P)$ and distal $(D)$ tubule of the Nephron.
Q68.
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+4 / 1
In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link:
Q69.
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What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method?
A. High fatality risk to mother
B. Expensive instruments and reagents
C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors
D. Less adoption of orphans
E. Not available in India
F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q70.
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Match List I with List II :
List - I
List - II
A
Scutellum
I
Persistent nuclellus
B
Non-albuminous seed
II
Cotyledon of Monocot seed
C
Epiblast
III
Groundnut
D
Perisperm
IV
Rudimentary cotyledon
Choose the option with all correct matches.
Q71.
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+4 / 1
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar.
Reason (R) : The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q72.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled.
Reason (R) : The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Q73.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.
Statement II : Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Q74.
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Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.
Reason (R) : Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Q75.
mcq single
+4 / 1
How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?
Q76.
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Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In a floral formula $\oplus$ stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and $\underline{G}$ stands for inferior ovary.
Statement II: In a floral formula $\oplus$ stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and $\underline{\mathrm{G}}$ stands for superior ovary.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q77.
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Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?
Q78.
mcq single
+4 / 1
The protein portion of an enzyme is called:
Q79.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Match List-I with List-II
List - I
List - II
A
Adenosine
I
Nitrogen base
B
Adenylic acid
II
Nucleotide
C
Adenine
III
Nucleoside
D
Alanine
IV
Amino acid
Choose the option with all correct matches.
Q80.
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+4 / 1
Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?
Q81.
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+4 / 1
Histones are enriched with -
Q82.
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+4 / 1
Which one of the following enzymes contains 'Haem' as the prosthetic group?
Q83.
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Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction :
$$S-G+S^{\#} \rightarrow S+S^{\#}-G$$
Where, G $\rightarrow$ a group other than hydrogen
$$S \rightarrow \text { a substrate }$$
$$S^{\#} \rightarrow \text { another substrate }$$
Q84.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Given below are two statements:
Statement 1 : The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA.
Statement II : Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Q85.
mcq single
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Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam braker from the given figure.
Q86.
mcq single
+4 / 1
Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?
A. Restriction enzymes
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA mutase
D. DNA recombinase
E. DNA polymerase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q87.
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Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of
Q88.
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+4 / 1
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.
Q89.
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In the above represented plasmid, an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?
In the above represented plasmid, an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?
Q90.
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The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from nonrecombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate.
Given below are two statements about this method:
Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies.
Statement II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: